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Ostrovityanka [42]
4 years ago
15

CarsonWentz Company uses a job-order costing system. The company applies manufacturing overhead to jobs using a predetermined ov

erhead rate based on direct labor-hours. Last year, manufacturing overhead and direct labor-hours were estimated at $88,000 and 16,000 hours respectively, for the year. In June, job #315 was completed. Materials costs on the job totaled $1,590 and labor costs totaled $2,340 at $6.50 per hour. At the end of the year, it was determined that the company worked 15,300 direct labor-hours for the year, and incurred $86,750 in actual manufacturing overhead cos
Business
1 answer:
Mekhanik [1.2K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated manufacturing overhead= $88,000

Estimated direct labor-hours= 16,000

Job 315:

Materials costs on the job totaled $1,590 and labor costs totaled $2,340 at $6.50 per hour.

At the end of the year, it was determined that the company worked 15,300 direct labor-hours for the year, and incurred $86,750 in actual manufacturing overhead costs.

<u>With the information provided, we can calculate the total cost of Job 315 and the amount of under/over allocated overhead.</u>

First, we need to determine the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 88,000/16,000= $5.5 per direct labor hour

<u>Job 315:</u>

Direct labor hours= 2,340/6.5= 360 hours

Total cost= 1,590 + 2,340 + 5.5*360= $5,910

Now, to calculate the over/under allocation, first, we need to allocate overhead for the whole company.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 5.5*15,300= $84,150

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 86,750 - 84,150= $2,600 underallocated

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7 0
3 years ago
Simpson Enterprises is considering a new project with revenue of $325,000 for the indefinite future. Cash costs are 63 percent o
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

net present value =  133808.82

Explanation:

solution

we find here present value of cash inflows that is

Cash inflows = $325,000

and

cash costs @63% =  $204,750

so

cash flow before tax = 325,000  - 204,750 = $120,250

and Tax @21% = $25,252.5

so

Cash flow after tax will be  = $120,250  - $25,252.5 = $94,997.5

Discounting factor is = 0.17

Present value of cash inflows = (cash flows after tax ÷ discounting factor)

Present value of cash inflows = \frac{94997.5}{0.17}

Present value of cash inflows = $558808.82

so

net present value = Present value of cash inflow - present value of cash outflows

put here

net present value =  $558808.82 - $425,000

net present value =  133808.82

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the dollar amount of the externality, per gallon of gasoline, is constant, regardless of how much gasoline is produced.
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

a. required to pay a tax of $0.45 per gallon of gasoline sold.

Explanation:

The marginal external cost shows the difference between the private cost and the social cost. Also it should be the tax imposed amount. In the given case, the value is of $0.45 this represent that there is the tax of $0.45 that should be imposed on the producers in order to internalize the external cost

Therefore, the option a is correct

6 0
3 years ago
Staley Co. manufactures computer monitors. The following is a summary of its basic cost and revenue data: Per Unit Percent Sales
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

20.5%

Explanation:

Calculation for what Staley Co.'s margin of safety ratio (MOS%) if 600 units are sold would be

First step is to calculate Break-even amount

Break-even = $80,000/($480-$312)

Break-even= 476.19

Break-even= 477 approximately

Second step is to calculate the Margin of Safety

Margin of Safety = 600-477

Margin of Safety= 123

Now let calculate the margin of safety ratio

Margin of safety ratio=123/600

Margin of safety ratio=20.5%

Therefore Staley Co.'s margin of safety ratio (MOS%) if 600 units are sold would be 20.5%

7 0
3 years ago
Marla’s Publishing Service has $4,800 of fixed expenses. The manager reported the company’s operating income as $0, and the cont
Greeley [361]

Answer:

Break-even sales in dollar value = $10,667

Explanation:

Since the company's operating income is $0, the company makes no profit and no loss. Therefore, the company's total sales is equal to total expenses. It means the company is in break-even point. However, as the variable expense is not given, we have to use contribution margin ratio to calculate the break-even sales.

We know,

Break-even sales in dollar value = Fixed expenses ÷ Contribution margin ratio

Given,

Contribution margin ratio = 45%

Fixed expenses = $4,800

Putting the values into the above formula, we can get,

Break-even sales in dollar value = $4,800 ÷ 45%

Break-even sales in dollar value = $10,667

4 0
3 years ago
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