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daser333 [38]
2 years ago
15

What would x equal? i’m very confused

Mathematics
2 answers:
Tju [1.3M]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x equal on what

Step-by-step explanation:

satela [25.4K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

yes, 1x is the same as x. Technically, the "1" in front of the "x" is called an "implied 1" and, so it's simply written as x. Just simply means that any value multiplied by 1 is always equal to itself

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Can a triangle have sides with the given lengths? Explain.<br> a = 6 yd, b = 9 yd, c = 11 yd
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the cosine rule and see if the numbers hold true. a^2 = b^2 + c^2 - (2bc (cos x))

By substituting in our values I get that cos x = 0.838... which is possible. If cos x would equal 1.5, the there is no solution and the triangle would not be possible.

3 0
2 years ago
Colin invests £3900 into his bank account.
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

Colin will have 421824 pennies after 2 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Amount invested in bank by Colin (P) = £3900

Rate of interest (r) = 4%

Time period (n) = 2 years

To find: Amount after 2 years (A)

Solution:

Formula for amount (A) is A=P\left ( 1+\frac{r}{100} \right )^n

A=3900\left ( 1+\frac{4}{100} \right )^2\\=3900\left ( 1+\frac{1}{25} \right )^2\\=3900\times \frac{26}{25}\times \frac{26}{25}\\=4218.24

As 1 pound = 100 pennies,

4218.24 pounds = 4218.24 × 100 = 421824 pennies

So,

Colin will have 421824 pennies after 2 years.

4 0
2 years ago
You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing.  So, the awnser would have to be. D  </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B.  It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win

6 0
2 years ago
Function g can be thought of as a translated (shifted) version of f(x)=|x|.
klasskru [66]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x) = |x+4| +6 ( to go 4 to the left and 6 up)

7 0
2 years ago
Help please
mezya [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

My guess is that what is confusing you is not what you have to do, but why it is disguised as g(n)

What you are doing in effect is setting up a table. You are also not certain where the table starts. And that is a problem. I will start it at zero, but it might be 1.

zero

n = 0

g(0) = 34 - 5*0

g(0) = 34

One

n = 1

g(1) = 34 - 5*1

g(1) = 34 - 5

g(1) = 29

Two

g(2) = 34 - 5*2

g(2) = 34 - 10

g(2) = 24

Three

g(3) = 34 - 5*3

g(3) = 34 - 15

g(3) = 19

Four

g(4) = 34 - 5*4

g(4) = 34 - 20

g(4) = 19

Answer

0      1       2       3      4

34  29     24     19     14

7 0
2 years ago
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