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suter [353]
3 years ago
5

Curtis purchased inventory on December 1, 2020. Payment of 250,000 stickles was to be made in sixty days. Also on December 1, Cu

rtis signed a contract to purchase §250,000 in sixty days. The spot rate was §1 = 0.33682, and the 60-day forward rate was §1 = $0.36842. On December 31, the spot rate was §1 = 0.32438 and the 30-day forward rate was §1 = 0.36386.
At what amount should the Forward Contract account be recorded on December 1?
Business
1 answer:
jek_recluse [69]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: $0

Explanation:

Forward contracts get their value from the cost and on December 1, there was no cost to Curtis as he Curtis had just signed the contract.

This means that the amount that should be recorded for the Forward Contract should be $0. Even though the contract is valued at $0, it will still need to be credited against the amount to be received to at least recognize that a forward contract was entered into.

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Interactive is the answer
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Cedar Mill, Inc. uses the Aging of Accounts Receivable method for estimating uncollectible accounts. The accounting records show
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

  • What would be the amount of the adjustment for bad debts?  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 128,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 128,000

Explanation:

  • If the unadjusted credit balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account before is $30,000  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 30,000

  • What would be the amount of the adjustment for bad debts?  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 128,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 128,000

$740,000  5%   $37,000  Past Due 0-30 days

$480,000  10%   $48,000  Past Due 31-60 days

$220,000  15%   $33,000  Past due 61-90 days

$160,000  25%   $40,000  Over 90 days

                  $158,000  

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of estimated value.

Because the company already has a CREDIT balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts it's necessary to register an entry that complement the existing value and reflect the value as % of account receivable.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

8 0
4 years ago
Geothermal corp. just announced good news: its earnings have increased by 20%. most investors had anticipated an increase of 25%
Nataly_w [17]
The answer would be the stock price will decrease. The reason behind this is the original price replicates an expectation or looking forward of a 25% upsurge in the company’s earnings. The actual increase is a dissatisfaction compared to original expectations.
3 0
3 years ago
1.Here are data on two companies. The T-bill rate is 4% and the market risk premium is 6%.
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

According to the CAPM model

Fair return = Risk-free rate of return + (Beta × Market Premium)

For $1 discount store:

Expected return = 4% +(1.5 × 6%)

Expected return = 0.04 + (1.5 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.09

Expected return = 0.13

Expected return = 13%

For everything $5

Expected Return = 4% + (1 × 6%)

Expected return =  0.04 + (1 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.06

Expected return = 0.10

Expected return = 10%

2.

From the above calculation;

For $1 discount store:

Since the expected return is greater than the forecasted return at 12%.

Thus, it is overpriced.

For everything $5

Here, it is obvious from the above calculation that the expected return is lesser than the forecasted return at 11%.

Therefore, it is underpriced.

3) Beta can be defined as the security change that takes place due to market functuations. Thus, Beta manages the systematic risk associated with firms. From the information given, Kaskin Inc. has a more systematic risk(beta) than Quinn Inc. Thus, option A is the most accurate.

4)

To first find the growth rate by using CAPM model.

Required return = Risk free return + \beta (market return - risk free return)

Required return = 0.08 + 1(0.18 - 0.08)

Required return = 18%

Using the formula:

Required return = (next year dividend/current price) + growth rate

18% = (9/100) + g

0.18 = 0.09 g

g = 0.09

Growth rate g = 9%

To determine the price at year 1; we have:

= year \ 1 \  dividend \times \dfrac{1+g}{ke-g}

= 9 \times \dfrac{1+0.09}{0.18 - 0.09}

= $109.00

Therefore, the investor can earn a profit of $9 after selling the stock for $109 at the end of the year 1.

5.

According to beta

For portfolio A.

Risk premium per unit = (21 - 8)%/1.3

Risk premium per unit = (0.21 - 0.08)/1.3

Risk premium per unit = 0.1

Risk premium per unit = 10%

For portfolio B.

Risk premium per unit = (17 - 8)%/0.7

Risk premium per unit = (0.17 - 0.08)/0.7

Risk premium per unit = 0.1286

Risk premium per unit = 12.86%

From above, it is clear that the risk associated with portfolio B is lesser compared to portfolio A.

Thus; the correct option is b. A; B

4 0
3 years ago
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