Answer:
The correct answer is A and B
Explanation:
PPP stands for Purchasing Power Parity, which is a theory that states or define as the exchange rate among the currencies of 2 countries, which should be equal to the ratio of the price levels of the countries.
It is grounded on The Law of One Price, which states all the identical goods have the same price.
As the purchasing power of the currency which sharply decrease because of hyperinflation, that currency will be depreciated against the stable currencies.
Answer:
c. has decreasing slope and a person is risk averse.
Explanation:
The marignal utility of wealth represent that the subsequent utility of the person wealth is not perceived as necessary/joyful as the previous one.
This makes the slope of the utility function to go upward but at slower grow.
The first units of wealth produce a great improvement in utlity compared with the followings just like in any other good or service provided in the economy.
Based on the information given regarding the mortgage, the true statement will be that each of their payments is for the same amount.
A fully amortized payment simply means a payment where the individual makes every payment according to the schedule of the loan.
A fully amortized payment is a periodic repayment of a debt. Since Karen and Al obtained a 30-year fixed-rate fully amortized loan when they purchased their home, they'll pay the same amount monthly.
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Answer:
D1 = $3.50
D2 = $3.50
D3 = $3.50
Ke = 10% = 0.1
Po = <u>D1</u> + <u>D2</u> + <u>D3
</u>
(1+ke) (1+ke)2 (1+ke)3
Po = <u>$3.50</u> + <u>$3.50</u> + <u>$3.50
</u>
(1+0.1) (1+0.1)2 (1+0.1)3
Po = $3.18 + $2.89 + $2.63
Po = $8.70
None of the above
Explanation:
In this scenario, we need to discount the dividend in each year by the required at rate of return of 10%. The aggregate of the price obtained as a result of discounting in year 1 to year 3 gives the current market price.
Answer:
It is $30,000(C)
Explanation:
Depreciable cost = $90,000
Using straight-line method,
Annual depreciation = $90,000/3
= $30,000.
Hence, depreciation expense at the final year of service is $30,000
We cannot make use of entire cost of equipment of $120,000 because it seemed the company wanted to sell its scrap value for $30,000. Hence, this has been used to reduced it cost to $90,000 which is a depreciable cost .