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eimsori [14]
3 years ago
14

Janice has just bought a new pack of levels in her favorite game, Candy Crush. She knows that she can win a new level on the fir

st try 25% of the time, and that whether or not she beats one level on the first try will not have any effect on whether or not she beats a different level on the first try. Janice plays through 4 levels. What is the probability that she beats all 4 levels on the first try
Mathematics
1 answer:
worty [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.0039 = 0.39% probability that she beats all 4 levels on the first try.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each level, there are only two possible outcomes. Either she can win the new level on the first try, or she cannot. The probability of winning a level on the first try is independent of any other level. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

She knows that she can win a new level on the first try 25% of the time.

This means that p = 0.25

Janice plays through 4 levels.

This means that n = 4

What is the probability that she beats all 4 levels on the first try?

This is P(X = 4). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.25)^{4}.(0.75)^{0} = 0.0039

0.0039 = 0.39% probability that she beats all 4 levels on the first try.

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Archy [21]

Answer:

Option D.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for total debt ratio is

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It can be rewritten as

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We know that,

\text{ Equity multiplier}=\dfrac{\text{Total Equity}}{\text{Total assets}}          ... (2)

Using (1) and (2) we get

\text{Total debt ratio}=1-\dfrac{1}{\text{Equity multiplier}}

Substitute total debt ratio=0.46 in the above equation.

0.46=1-\dfrac{1}{\text{Equity multiplier}}

0.46-1=-\dfrac{1}{\text{Equity multiplier}}

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\text{Equity multiplier}=-\dfrac{1}{-0.54}

\text{Equity multiplier}=1.85185185

\text{Equity multiplier}\approx 1.85

Therefore, the correct option is D.

7 0
3 years ago
Simplify: log81/8 + 2log2/3 - 3log 3/2 +log 3/4​
MissTica

Answer:

0.

Step-by-step explanation:

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