Find the slope given the table. Value.

What measure in linear-regression analysis provides the percent of variation in the dependent variable (y) that is explained by

Nadya [2.5K]

The measure in linear-regression analysis that provides the percent of variation in the dependent variable as explained by the regression equation is the Coefficient of Determination.

<h3>What is the Coefficient of Determination?</h3>

This is a measure that allows us to see just how much the variation in the dependent variable, is as a result of the independent variable and is therefore explained by the regression equation.

The Coefficient of Variation is very important because it helps to show the usefulness and accuracy of the regression equation model.

Find out more on the coefficient of variation at brainly.com/question/19616808

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3 0

1 year ago

Jamie can take one of three different buses to and from school (bus A, B, and C). She randomly catches one bus in the morning an

SashulF [63]

Jamie can take one of the three different buses to and from school bus A ,B, and C. she randomly get just one person in the morning and another one on the way home this gift list same space of outcomes the answer is

C. BC

Did the quiz

3 0

2 years ago

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What is the amount of oil for a sports car? 5 gallons, 5 quarts or 5 cups

kumpel [21]

Answer:

Option A.

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the amount of oil for a sports car.

We know that,

1 quart = 4 cups

1 gallon = 4 quarts = 16 cups

Since, quart and cup are small units and they are not sufficient for a sports car because sports car needs more oil, therefore the amount of oil for a sports car is 5 gallons.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

6 0

3 years ago

Suppose that the probability that a person is killed by lightning, in a year is, independently of other people, 1/(500 million).

Katen [24]

Answer:

a) $P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X$

The individual pprobabilities are:

$P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812$

$P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287$

$P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786$

And if we replace we got:

$P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115$

b) $P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X$

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

$=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)$

And we got:

$P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=300000000, p=\frac{1}{500000000})$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

(a) Write down the exact expression for the probability P(3 or more people will be killed by lightning in the U.S. next year). Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X$

The individual probabilities are:

$P(X=0)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.548812$

$P(X=1)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.329287$

$P(X=2)=(300000000C0)(\frac{1}{500000000})^3 (1-\frac{1}{500000000})^{300000000-0}=0.098786$

And if we replace we got:

$P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.548812+0.329287+0.098786]=0.023115$

(b) Write down a relevant approximate expression for the probability from (a). Justify briefly the approximation. Evaluate this expression to 6 decimal places.

For this case we want this probability, we are going to use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 3) = 1- P(X$

And we can calculate this with the following excel formula:

$=1-BINOM.DIST(2;300000000;(1/500000000);TRUE)$

And we got:

$P(X\geq 3) = 0.023115$

7 0

3 years ago

What is ─2c – 2 = ─3c – 8 solved for the variable?

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

c = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

C is your variable

-2c - 2 = -3c - 8

+3c +2

1c = c -8 +2 = -6

c = -6

:)

7 0

2 years ago

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