Answer:
30 square cm
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helped
Answer:
<h2>y = 2</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
![16y=14+9y\qquad\text{subtract}\ 9y\ \text{from both sides}\\\\16y-9y=14+9y-9y\\\\7y=14\qquad\text{divide both sides by 7}\\\\\dfrac{7y}{7}=\dfrac{14}{7}\\\\y=2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=16y%3D14%2B9y%5Cqquad%5Ctext%7Bsubtract%7D%5C%209y%5C%20%5Ctext%7Bfrom%20both%20sides%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C16y-9y%3D14%2B9y-9y%5C%5C%5C%5C7y%3D14%5Cqquad%5Ctext%7Bdivide%20both%20sides%20by%207%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cdfrac%7B7y%7D%7B7%7D%3D%5Cdfrac%7B14%7D%7B7%7D%5C%5C%5C%5Cy%3D2)
The mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct
<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>
Given that , The probability of winning a certain lottery is
for people who play 908 times
We have to find the mean number of wins
![\text { The probability of winning a lottery }=\frac{1}{77076}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Ctext%20%7B%20The%20probability%20of%20winning%20a%20lottery%20%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B77076%7D)
Assume that a procedure yields a binomial distribution with a trial repeated n times.
Use the binomial probability formula to find the probability of x successes given the probability p of success on a single trial.
![n=908, \text { probability } \mathrm{p}=\frac{1}{77076}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=n%3D908%2C%20%5Ctext%20%7B%20probability%20%7D%20%5Cmathrm%7Bp%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B77076%7D)
![\text { Then, binomial mean }=n \times p](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Ctext%20%7B%20Then%2C%20binomial%20mean%20%7D%3Dn%20%5Ctimes%20p)
![\begin{array}{l}{\mu=908 \times \frac{1}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=\frac{908}{77076}} \\\\ {\mu=0.01178}\end{array}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bl%7D%7B%5Cmu%3D908%20%5Ctimes%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B77076%7D%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%7B%5Cmu%3D%5Cfrac%7B908%7D%7B77076%7D%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%7B%5Cmu%3D0.01178%7D%5Cend%7Barray%7D)
Hence, the mean is 0.0118 approximately. So option C is correct.
So this is a right triangle so you can use sin, cosine, or tangent. for A, you have the sides opposite and hypotenuse, which means you use sin*
sin(A) = opposite / hypotenuse
sin(A) = 56 / 75
arcsin(56/75) = A
A= about 48.3
so to the nearest degree, your answer is 48
*soh cah toa (if you dont know what that is, i can explain it)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
It is a solution because if you plug in 84 for b you get 84/12 = 7