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Andrew [12]
3 years ago
7

Which of the following functions has the steepest slope

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ivanshal [37]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B. y=5x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Basically the larger the number in front of x, the steeper the slope.

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A rectangular board has a perimeter of 28 feet. if the length is twice the width minus 1 foot, then what is the length of the bo
Westkost [7]
P = 2(L + W)
P = 28 
L = 2W - 1

28 = 2(2W - 1 + W)
28 = 2(3W - 1)
28 = 6W - 2
28 + 2 = 6W
30 = 6W
30/6 = W
5 = W ....width is 5 ft

L = 2W - 1
L = 2(5) - 1
L = 10 - 1
L = 9 <=== length is 9 ft
4 0
3 years ago
Can any one please help me with these Math questions soon as possible?
disa [49]

Answer:

the answer to the first question is 9/27, 5/27, 13/27

the answer to the second question is 27/126, 33/126, 20/126, 42/126

the answer to the last question is 32/44

Step-by-step explanation:

they way you solve the fist two questions you just add the numbers up and that will tell you your probability.

for the last question you take the number of players and subtract it by 12 to get the top number

7 0
3 years ago
24:12 in its simplest form
natima [27]

Answer: 2/1

Step-by-step explanation:

24 divided by 12 equals: 2/1

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Solve for X<br><br> 2/3x+4=1/2x+5
mote1985 [20]

For this case we must find the value of the variable of the following equation:

\frac {2} {3} x + 4 = \frac {1} {2} x + 5

Subtracting \frac {1} {2} x from both sides:

\frac {2} {3} x- \frac {1} {2} x + 4 = 5\\\frac {4-3} {6} x + 4 = 5\\\frac {1} {6} x + 4 = 5

Subtracting 4 from both sides:

\frac {1} {6} {x} = 5-4\\\frac {1} {6} x = 1

Multiplying by 6 on both sides:

x = 6 * 1\\x = 6

Answer:

x = 6

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If f(x) = arcsinx, then f' (√3/2)=
Irina-Kira [14]

You can either use the inverse function theorem or compute the general derivative using implicit differentiation. The first method is slightly faster.

The IFT goes like this: if f(x) is invertible and f(a) = b, then finv(b) = a (where "finv" means "inverse of f").

By definition of inverse functions, we have

f(finv(x)) = finv(f(x)) = x

Differentiating both sides of the second equality with respect to x using the chain rule gives

finv'(f(x)) * f'(x) = 1

When x = a, we get

finv'(b) * f'(a) = 1

or

finv'(b) = 1/f'(a)

Now let f(x) = sin(x), which is invertible over the interval -π/2 ≤ x ≤ π/2. In the interval, we have sin(x) = √3/2 when x = π/3. We also have f'(x) = cos(x).

So we take a = π/3 and b = √3/2. Then

arcsin'(√3/2) = 1/cos(π/3) = 1/(1/2) = 2

4 0
3 years ago
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