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mote1985 [20]
3 years ago
15

Gottschalk Company sponsors a defined benefit plan for its 100 employees. On January 1, 2020, the company's actuary provided the

following information. Accumulated other comprehensive loss (PSC) $150,000 Pension plan assets (fair value and market-related asset value) 200,000 Accumulated benefit obligation 260,000 Projected benefit obligation 380,000 The average remaining service period for the participating employees is 10 years. All employees are expected to receive benefits under the
Business
1 answer:
Amiraneli [1.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Pension expenses = $85,000

Explanation:

Missing word: <em>"the plan. On December 31, 2017, the actuary calculated that the present value of future benefits earned for employee services rendered in the current year amounted to $52,000: the projected benefit obligation was $490,000; fair value of pension assets was $276,000: the accumulated benefit obligation amounted to $365,000. The expected return on plan assets and the discount rate on the projected benefit obligation were both 10%. The actual return on plan assets is $11.000. The company's current year's contribution to the pension plan amounted to $65,000. No benefits were paid during the year. Instructions Determine the components of pension expense that the company would recognize in 2017. (With only one year involved, you need not prepare a worksheet.)"</em>

<em />

Particulars                                                                Amount

Service cost                                                             $52,000

Interest on projected benefit obligation at 10%    $38,000 (380,000*10%)

Actual return on plan asset                                    ($11,000)

Unexpected loss                                                     ($9,000)

Amortization of gain or loss                                          -

Amortization of prior service cost                           <u>$15,000</u>

Pension Expenses                                                    <u>$85,000</u>

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Profiteer ltd reported retained earnings of r100000 and r80000 in therir statement of financial positionn for the years 2011 and
natta225 [31]

The profit-after-tax is R70,000

The profit before tax R100,000

The operating profit is R112,000

What is profit after-tax?

It is the profit before tax deduction of ordinary and preferred dividends, bearing in  mind that the profit after-tax is the sum of all dividends paid and the change, increase in retained earnings in this case as well as the share of non-controlling interest in the profits of the company

profit-after-tax=ordinary dividends+ preferred dividends+ increase in retained earnings+ profits to non-controlling interest

ordinary dividends=R30000

preferred dividends=R5000

increase in retained earnings=R100000-R80000

increase in retained earnings=R20,000

profits to non-controlling interest=R15000

profit-after-tax=R30000+R5000+R20,000+R15000

profit-after-tax=R70,000

profit after-tax=profit before tax*(1-tax rate)

tax rate=305

R70,000=profit before tax*(1-30%)

profit before tax=R70,000/(1-30%)

profit before tax=R100,000

profit before tax=operating profit-interest

operating profit=unknown'

interest=R200000*6%

interest=R12,000

R100,000=operating profit-R12,000

operating profit=R100,000+R12,000

operating profit=R112,000

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Full question with all missing parts:

profiteer Ltd reported retained earnings of R100000 and R80000 in their statement of financial position for the years 2011 and 2010 respectively. The firm's only debt capital is in the form of long-term debentures with a face value of R100000 and an annual coupon rate of 6%.The firm reported an ordinary share dividend of R30000, preference share dividend of R5000 and non-controlling interest of R15000 in their 2011 Statement of Comprehensive Income, the effective tax rate amounts to 30%. based on this information, you are required to indicate what the values of the following items were in the 2011 statement of comprehensive income: Operating profit, profit after tax, profit before tax.

3 0
2 years ago
If these patterns hold for decreases as well as for increases, by how much would the value of the financial securities decline i
Ratling [72]

Answer:

$115.20

Explanation:

Missing part is <em>"Assume that securitization combined with borrowing and irrational exuberance in Hyperville have driven up the value of existing financial securities at a geometric rate, specifically from $4 to $8 to $16 to $32 to $64 to $128 over a six-year time period. Over the same period, the value of the assets underlying the securities rose at an arithmetic rate from $4 to $6 to $8 to $10 to $12 to $14."</em>

<em />

If the underlying assets price fall by $10, then the securities value will fall by a ratio of $10

Value of securities = $128/$10 = $12.80

Decline in value of securities = $128 - $12.80 = $115.20. Thus, the Decline in value of the financial securities is $115.20

5 0
3 years ago
Caribou Gold Mining Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $6 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to decline at t
Oxana [17]

Answer:

A) $50

Explanation:

The computation of the intrinsic value of the stock is shown below:

But before that the required rate of return is computed by using CAPM

Required rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - risk-free rate of return)

= 5% + 0.5 × (13% - 5%)

= 5% + 0.5 × 8%

= 5% + 4%

= 9%

Now the intrisinc value is

= Dividend ÷ (required rate of return - growth rate)

= $6 ÷ (9% - (-3%)

= $6 ÷ 12%

= $50

Hence, the intrinsic value of the stock is $50

Therefore the correct option is A.

4 0
3 years ago
In the Shaping Department of Vaughn Company the unit materials cost is $6.00 and the unit conversion cost is $2.00. The departme
Oksanka [162]

Answer: $31200

Explanation:

Based on the information given in the question, the total cost to be assigned to the ending work in process will be:

Material cost = 4800 × $6 = $28800

Conversion cost = 4800 × 25% × $2 = $2400

Therefore, the total cost to be assigned to the ending work in process will be:

= $28800 + $2400

= $31200

5 0
3 years ago
At its simplest, acquisition management can be viewed as:
Goryan [66]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": project management plus operations management.

Explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
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