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2 years ago

Why do lower labor costs in other countries lead to job loss in the United

Business

1 answer:

Artist 52 [7]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Foreign producers are able to insource and make higher profits.

Explanation:

yes its so because the foreign producers cause people to work for them instead so u need to buy products made in your own country.

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A monopolist does not have a supply curve because the firm's decision about how much to supply is impossible to separate from th

Stella [2.4K]

True. A monopolist does not face the same constraints as an open or free market but instead is bounded by the consumers' demand for its products. Therefore, the firm's decision about how much to supply is directly related to its demand curve because they can produce as much or as little as the consumes demand.

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3 years ago

At high price levels, demand tends to be ________ and the price effect is ________, relative to the output effect.

rosijanka [135]

At high price levels, demand tends to be elastic and the price effect is small relative to the output effect.

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2 years ago

What distinguishes open-ended credit from closed-ended credit?

KiRa [710]

Open-ended credit is credit that can be used repeatedly.

Example: A credit card

Close-ended credit is credit that has to be paid in full by a certain date

Example: A house loan (mortgage)

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Ken is 63 years old and unmarried. He retired at age 55 when he sold his business, Understock.com. Though Ken is retired, he is

elena-s [515]

Answer: $‭46,950‬

Explanation:

a. All sources of income should be included including illegal ones.

b. Gain = 1,000 (32 - 31)

= $1,000

c. Gain = Amount received - Amount paid apportioned per year

= 25,000 - (210,000/20)

= 25,000 - 10,500

= $14,500

d. Not included as disability benefits are not included.

e. The $300 is deductible but the $200 that went towards car payment is not.

f. Taxation principles require that the person taxed should be the person earning the income so Ken will not be charged on the $1,100

g. The relevant figure here is the tax benefit before the $610 refund.

Ken claimed $6,250 in itemized deduction but the standard deduction is $6,200. Ken gained;

= 6,250 - 6,2000

= $50

h. The $30,000 is included as Ken earned it.

Gross Income = 1,200 + 1,000 + 14,500 + 200 + 50 + 30,000

= $‭46,950‬

3 0

3 years ago

Venezuela Co. is building a new hockey arena at a cost of $2,500,000. It received a downpayment of $500,000 from local businesse

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

cash 2,011,446 debit

unamortized bond cost 50,000 debit

bonds payable 2,000,000 credit

premium on BP 61,446 credit

--to record issuance--

# Beg. Carrying //cash // expense //Amortization// End.Carrying Value

1 2,061,446 210,000 206144.57 3855.43 2,057,590

2 2,057,590 210,000 205759.02 -4240.98 2,053,349

3 2,053,349 210,000 205334.93 -4665.07 2,048,684

4 2,048,684 210,000 204868.42 -5131.58 2,043,553

5 2,043,553 210,000 204355.26 -5644.74 2,037,908

Bonds payable 1,000,000 debit

premium on BP 24,342 debit

issuance cost expense 25,000 debit

interest expense 51,217.1 debit

loss at redemption 41.959,9‬ debit

cash 1,117,500 credit

unarmortized bond issuance cost 25,000 credit

Explanation:

First, we solve the value collected which is the present value of the coupon payment and maturity

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 210,000.000

time 10

rate 0.1

$210000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-10} }{0.1} = PV\\$

PV $1,290,359.0922

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 2,000,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.1

$\frac{2000000}{(1 + 0.1)^{10} } = PV$

PV 771,086.58

PV c $ 1,290,359.0922

PV m $ 771,086.5789

Total $ 2,061,445.6711

Now, we solve for the premium

2,061,446 - 2,000,000 = 61,446 premium

the interst expense will be calcualte as carrying value times market rate

the cash will be the same for every period thus 210,000

Finally, the difference will be the amortizationon the premium

If redem on July 1st 2016 we need to record the interst:

2,048,684 x .05 = 102.434,2/2 = 51.217,1

cash interest: 1,000,000 x 10.5% / 2 = 52,500

<em>Total cash</em>

52,500 interest

<u>1,065,000 bonds </u>

1,117,500

portion of unamortized cost 25,000

face value 1,000,000

portion of premium: 48,684/2 = 24.342‬

the loss f redemption will be the difference between the interest expense, amoritzation on premiun and write-off of the face value with the amount of cash outlay.

8 0

3 years ago