Hello There!
First w<span>rite down the first coefficient without changes as a table
Next you m</span><span>ultiply the left part of the table by the last entry.
The quotient is </span>
and the remainder would be 13.
Therefore
=
Answer is
Hope This Helps You!Good Luck :)
No offense to the person above me but they are wrong. So first you have to examine the probability of the first card being blue. Since there are 20 total cards, and three are blue, the probability of the first card being blue is 3 out of 20 or 3/20. Now examine the probability of the second card being blue. Since the previous card was replaced, the total number of cards is still 20. Three out of 20 cards are blue (just like before), so the probability of the second card being blue is 3/20. But the answer is NOT 3/20. Because you have to multiply the two probabilities together because it is happening back to back (if that makes sense). So multiply the two fractions. 3/20 times 3/20 = 9/400. So your ANSWER IS 9/400. (I just put it in caps so it’s easy to see) The fraction can’t be simplified any further. Hope this helps!
Answer:
The graph in the attached figure
Step-by-step explanation:
we have
----> inequality A
The solution of the inequality A is the shaded area below the solid line
-----> inequality B
The solution of the inequality B is the shaded area above the solid line
Using a graphing tool
The solution of the system of inequalities is the shaded area indicated in the attached figure
Answer:
(✿◠‿◠)
I put the link in the comments!
Answer:
Hello! answer: 48
Step-by-step explanation:
3 × 19 - 9 = 48
7 × 19 - 1 = 132
48 + 132 = 180 so... 48 is the measure of ABC