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Vlad [161]
3 years ago
12

Are 35:40 and 21:24 equivalent?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ivenika [448]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

35 divided by 40 is 0.875 and 21 divided by 24 are 0.875. These are the same answer ( 0.875 = 0.875) so they are equivelent. Hope this helped! If it did, please mark me as brainliest! Thanks!        

andrew-mc [135]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

35:40=0.875

21:24=0.875

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In a freshman class of 80 students,22 students take Consumer Education,20 students take French,and 4 students take both.Which eq
MAXImum [283]
<h3>Answer: Choice C</h3>

P = 11/40 + 1/4 - 1/20

=========================================================

Explanation:

The formula we use is

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B)

In this case,

  • P(A) = 22/80 = 11/40 = probability of picking someone from consumer education
  • P(B) = 20/80 = 1/4 = probability of picking someone taking French
  • P(A and B) = 4/80 = 1/20 = probability of picking someone taking both classes

So,

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B)

P(A or B) = 11/40 + 1/4 - 1/20

which is why choice C is the answer

----------------

Note: P(A and B) = 1/20 which is nonzero, so events A and B are not mutually exclusive.

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3 years ago
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A pack of 13 candles is priced at $78. At that rate, how much would only 10 candles cost?
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Answer:

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Hope it helped

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