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katrin [286]
3 years ago
10

Your classmates are planning to go to Miami for spring break, and you are undecided about whether you should go with them. The r

ound-trip airfares are $600, but you have a frequent-flyer coupon worth $500 that you could use to pay part of the airfare. All other costs for the vacation are exactly $900. The most you would be willing to pay for the trip is $1400. Your only alternative use for your frequent-flyer coupon is for your trip to Atlanta two weeks after the break to attend your sister's graduation, which your parents are forcing you to attend. If the Atlanta round-trip air fare is $350, should you go to Miami
Business
1 answer:
MaRussiya [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

You should use the discount coupon to pay for the Miami trip. Not considering the personal motivations for the trip, the coupon is worth $500. The cost of flying is $600, so you will only pay $100 yourself. You will be spending $900 + $1000 = $1,000 in total.

The opportunity cost of using the coupon is $350 (the cost of the round trip to Atlanta). Even if you add the $350 to the $1,000 expense, the total is $1,350, less than your $1,400 maximum budget.

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Suppose that the S&P 500, with a beta of 1.0, has an expected return of 13% and T-bills provide a risk-free return of 4%. a.
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

a. The answers are as follows:

(i) Expected of Return of Portfolio = 4%; and Beta of Portfolio = 0

(ii) Expected of Return of Portfolio = 6.25%; and Beta of Portfolio = 0.25

(iii) Expected of Return of Portfolio = 8.50%; and Beta of Portfolio = 0.50

(iv) Expected of Return of Portfolio = 10.75%; and Beta of Portfolio = 0.75

(v) Expected of Return of Portfolio = 13%; and Beta of Portfolio = 1.0

b. Change in expected return = 9% increase

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete as part b of it is omitted. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Suppose that the S&P 500, with a beta of 1.0, has an expected return of 13% and T-bills provide a risk-free return of 4%.

a. What would be the expected return and beta of portfolios constructed from these two assets with weights in the S&P 500 of (i) 0; (ii) 0.25; (iii) 0.50; (iv) 0.75; (v) 1.0

b. How does expected return vary with beta? (Do not round intermediate calculations.)

The explanation to the answers are now provided as follows:

a. What would be the expected return and beta of portfolios constructed from these two assets with weights in the S&P 500 of (i) 0; (ii) 0.25; (iii) 0.50; (iv) 0.75; (v) 1.0

To calculate these, we use the following formula:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (WS&P * RS&P) + (WT * RT) ………… (1)

Beta of Portfolio = (WS&P * BS&P) + (WT * BT) ………………..………………. (2)

Where;

WS&P = Weight of S&P = (1) – (1v)

RS&P = Return of S&P = 13%, or 0.13

WT = Weight of T-bills = 1 – WS&P

RT = Return of T-bills = 4%, or 0.04

BS&P = 1.0

BT = 0

After substituting the values into equation (1) & (2), we therefore have:

(i) Expected return and beta of portfolios with weights in the S&P 500 of 0 (i.e. WS&P = 0)

Using equation (1), we have:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (0 * 0.13) + ((1 - 0) * 0.04) = 0.04, or 4%

Using equation (2), we have:

Beta of Portfolio = (0 * 1.0) + ((1 - 0) * 0) = 0

(ii) Expected return and beta of portfolios with weights in the S&P 500 of 0.25 (i.e. WS&P = 0.25)

Using equation (1), we have:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (0.25 * 0.13) + ((1 - 0.25) * 0.04) = 0.0625, or 6.25%

Using equation (2), we have:

Beta of Portfolio = (0.25 * 1.0) + ((1 - 0.25) * 0) = 0.25

(iii) Expected return and beta of portfolios with weights in the S&P 500 of 0.50 (i.e. WS&P = 0.50)

Using equation (1), we have:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (0.50 * 0.13) + ((1 - 0.50) * 0.04) = 0.0850, or 8.50%

Using equation (2), we have:

Beta of Portfolio = (0.50 * 1.0) + ((1 - 0.50) * 0) = 0.50

(iv) Expected return and beta of portfolios with weights in the S&P 500 of 0.75 (i.e. WS&P = 0.75)

Using equation (1), we have:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (0.75 * 0.13) + ((1 - 0.75) * 0.04) = 0.1075, or 10.75%

Using equation (2), we have:

Beta of Portfolio = (0.75 * 1.0) + ((1 - 0.75) * 0) = 0.75

(v) Expected return and beta of portfolios with weights in the S&P 500 of 1.0 (i.e. WS&P = 1.0)

Using equation (1), we have:

Expected of Return of Portfolio = (1.0 * 0.13) + ((1 – 1.0) * 0.04) = 0.13, or 13%

Using equation (2), we have:

Beta of Portfolio = (1.0 * 1.0) + (1 – 1.0) * 0) = 1.0

b. How does expected return vary with beta? (Do not round intermediate calculations.)

There expected return will increase by the percentage of the difference between Expected Return and Risk free rate. That is;

Change in expected return = Expected Return - Risk free rate = 13% - 4% = 9% increase

4 0
3 years ago
Bottle Top, Inc. recently announced they will pay their first annual dividend next year in the amount of $0.75 a share. The divi
Korolek [52]

Answer:

$12.50

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Annual dividend next year = $0.75

Growth rate = 4%

Required rate of return = 10%

So by considering the above information, the price of the share is

= Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)

= $0.75 ÷ (10% - 4%)

= ($0.75) ÷ (6%)

= $12.50

Hence we considered all the information which is given in the question

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between earnings and dividends when all other factors ar
poizon [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is: Retaining a higher percentage of earnings will result in a lower growth rate.; Long-run earnings growth will decrease when firms retain earnings and reinvest them in the business.

Explanation:

In the first statement, a deliberate action is shown that consists of the capitalization of the entity, that is, the equity is accumulated in order to distribute it among the shareholders and leave a part to support the company. In the second statement, it means that the positive results of the company will not be seen in the long term due to management's dispositions to execute a policy to capitalize the entity and improve its cash flow by reinvesting the perceived resources.

7 0
3 years ago
An appraiser valued a subsidiary of Signal Co. at between $230 million and $260 million. One month later, Burmah Oil offered to
Goshia [24]

Answer:

No, because they violated the duty of care

Explanation:

Business judgement rule is a provision that protects the management of a business from frivolous legal action concerning the way it does business.

The court assumes that the management acts in good faith in its fiduciary role, standard of loyalty, prudence, and care.

Duty of care is breached when the management do not make reasonable effort to prevent injury or loss.

In this instance Signal board is not protected by the business judgement rule because they violated duty of care.

Although the offer by Burmah oil is above the valuation a month ago, the board did not bother to do a present valuation or find out if other companies want to buy the subsidiary at a higher price.

8 0
3 years ago
Earth's Treasures Mining Co. acquired mineral rights for $93,000,000. The mineral deposit is estimated at 60,000,000 tons. Durin
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of the depletion rate is shown below:

= Acquired mineral rights ÷ estimated mineral deposit

= $93,000,000 ÷ 60,000,000 tons

= $1.55 per ton

b. The amount of depletion expense for the current year is

= Depletion rate × current year mined tons

= $1.55 per ton × 16,800,000 tons

= $26,040,000

c. And, the journal entry is

Depletion expense $26,040,000

        To Accumulated depletion  $26,040,000

(Being depletion expense is recorded)

For recording this entry we debited the depletion expense as it increased the expenses and at the same time it decreased the value of the asset so the accumulated depletion is credited

4 0
3 years ago
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