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3 years ago

How do i solve a division problem

Mathematics

1 answer:

Finger [1]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The steps are more or less the same, except for one new addition:

Divide the tens column dividend by the divisor.

Multiply the divisor by the quotient in the tens place column.

Subtract the product from the divisor.

Bring down the dividend in the ones column and repeat.

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Pls help this is important ty <3

Gnoma [55]

Graph it on the bottom 4

8 0

2 years ago

PLZ HELP WILL NAME BRIANLIEST

Kamila [148]

Answer:

SORRY IF IM WRONG BUT I THINK ITS C

Step-by-step explanation:

PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST REMOVE MY ANSWER IF WRONG!!!!!!!!

3 0

3 years ago

HELP! SIMPLIFY!

Vitek1552 [10]

1) (m³n⁵)(mn⁴)
-----------------
m⁻³n²

Simplify.

m⁴n⁹
-------
m⁻³n²

When the bottom power is a negative, you add it to the power on top, & when the power is a positive, you subtract it.

m⁴ + m³ = m⁷

n⁹ - n² = n⁷

So, our answer for #1 is m⁷n⁷

2) 6a²b³
---------
4a

Please read rules in #1.

6 / 4 = 3/2 & a² - a = a

So, our answer is 3a
-----
2

3) 5⁶a⁶b³
---------
5²ab³
5⁶ - 5² = 5⁴ AND a⁶ - a = a⁵ AND b³-b³ = 0

So, our answer is 5⁴a⁵

Simplify 5⁴

5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 625

So, our final answer is :

625a⁵

~Hope I helped!~

6 0

3 years ago

g: Consider the following game. A coin is flipped. If it lands tails we stop playing and winnothing. If it lands heads we spin a

galben [10]

Answer:

E[W] = $25 (assuming the currency is in dollars)

Var(W) = 1041.67

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of winning first starts with the coin toss.

For a win, the coin needs to land on heads.

Probability of that = 1/2 = 0.5

Then probability of winning any amount = 1/100 = 0.01

Total probability of winning any amount = 0.5 × 0.01 = 0.005

But expected value is given by

E(X) = Σ xᵢpᵢ

where xᵢ is each amount that could be won

pᵢ is the probability of each amount to be won and it is the same for all the possible winnings = 0.005

So,

E(W) = Σ 0.005 xᵢ

Summing from 0 to 100 (0 indicating getting a tail from the coin toss). This could be done with dome faster with an integral sign

E(W) = ∫ 0.005 x dx

Integrating from 0 to 100

E(W) = [0.005 x²/2]¹⁰⁰₀

E(W) = [0.0025 x²]¹⁰⁰₀ = 0.0025(100² - 0²) = 0.0025 × 10000 = $25

Variance is given by

Variance = Var(X) = Σxᵢ²pᵢ − μ²

μ = expected value

We calculate the expression, Σxᵢ²pᵢ which is another sum from 0 to 100

Σxᵢ²pᵢ = Σ 0.005xᵢ²

Σ 0.005 xᵢ² = ∫ 0.005 x² dx

Integrating from 0 to 100

∫ 0.005 x² dx = [0.005 x³/3]¹⁰⁰₀ = [0.1667x³]¹⁰⁰₀ = 0.1667(100³ - 0³) = 1666.67

Var(W) = 1666.67 - 25² = 1666.67 - 625 = 1041.67.

5 0

3 years ago

If a club charges dues of $200 a year, it will have 50 members. For each $5 it raises its dues, it loses a member. USE AN EQUATI

Vikentia [17]

Answer:

The value is $y = \$ 225$

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The amount charge per year is $k = \$ 200$

The number of members it will have at this amount is $n = 50$

The amount amount increase that will lead to the loss of a single member is $z = \$ 5$

Generally the total amount the club would obtain from its members is mathematically represented as

$I = Amount \ due\ paid * Number \ of members$

Now let x denote the number of member lost

Hence

$I = (k + zx) (n-x )$

=> $I = (200 + 5x) (50-x )$

=> $I = 10000+50x-5x^2$

Thus the number of members that be removed to give the maximum income from dues is obtained by differentiating the above equation and equating it to zero

$\frac{dI}{dx} = 50-10x$