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Elenna [48]
3 years ago
6

In which subject are you talking about ? but it means too keep.

Business
2 answers:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

wait I really don't understand what this question is

netineya [11]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Sorry, cannot help you there................

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MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
Chip bought 10 shares of apex company for $40 each and later sold all of them at $45 each. this transaction resulted in what typ
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The correct answer is capital gain.
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3 years ago
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A young couple has $300,000 that they have used to aggressively trade growth stocks. They place their account with a Registered
EastWind [94]

Answer:

the investment advisor should do nothing

Explanation:

In the scenario that is being described, the investment advisor should do nothing. This is because the investment advisor did nothing wrong or illegal, he simply followed the instructions that were strictly provided by the clients, therefore acting in accordance with the customers' wishes. Meaning that he has nothing to fear from the client's being accept because they have no standing to take legal action against the advisor.

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If you sell only one or just a few items your business is
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

selling half

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because your not selling everything so not all

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Edutailing is the term used to describe the new service distribution channel which combines retail and entertainment elements
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A. true.
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