Answer:
It's the b graph
Step-by-step explanation:
Khan Academy.
Answer:
Infinite solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
1) First, you can solve this easily by elimination. Multiply the first equation by -2 in order to cancel out terms when adding to the second equation.
2) Then, add the new set of equations together. However, everything cancels out, bringing us to 0 = 0. This means that the lines the equations make must be the same. Thus, all real numbers must make this equation true, meaning that there are infinite solutions.
Answer:
A and D
Step-by-step explanation:
4×3=12
4×d=4d
12+4d
Then;(4×d)+(3×4)=4d +12
Same expression
The probability would be

,
Simplify and turn into ratio.
0.159 : 1.
I am unsure what the full question was though.
Hope this helps.
<h2>
Hello!</h2>
The answer is:
The answer is the fourth option,

<h2>
Why?</h2>
Piecewise functions are functions that are composed by two or more expressions, the expression to use will depend of the domain or input that we need to evaluate.
We are given the piecewise function:

There, we know that:
We should use the first expression if the value to evaluate is less than -2.
So, for this case, the function will be:

We should use the second expression if the value to evaluate is greater or equal than 2.
So, for this case, the function will be:

Now, since we are given that the value to evaluate is -3, and its less than -2, we need to use the first expression, and evaluate it.

So, evaluating the function we have:



Hence, we have that the answer is the fourth option,

Have a nice day!