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slega [8]
3 years ago
8

HELP I NEED HELP WITH EXPLANATION PLS??‼️‼️‼️

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fofino [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3)76°

Step-by-step explanation:

  • y=76°{vertically opposite angle r equal}

hope it helps.

Fantom [35]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Hello! answer: 76 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 76 degrees because they are vertical and vertical angles always have the same measure hope that helps!

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Analyzing Graphs to Determine Input Values
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

se the graph to determine the input values that

correspond with f(x) = 1.

O x=4

O x= 1 and x = 4

O x= -7 and x = 4

O x= -7 and x = 2

6.

(-6, 4)

4

(1,4) w

2

(-7, 1)

(2, 1) x

2

4

-8/ -6 -4 -2

-2

-4

7 0
3 years ago
What’s the length of three pipes, when combined they equal 72m, how do I find the answer
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

Each pipe is 24m

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

  • three pipes
  • combined equal 72m
  • let the variable x represent the length of 1 pipe

<u>Algebraic Expression</u>:

3 pipes times length equals 72m (the total length)

3x = 72, we want x to be alone so divided both sides by 3

3x / 3 = 72 / 3

x = 24

Learn more about Algebraic Expression here: brainly.com/question/4344214

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
mestny [16]

For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23,  we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.

Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77

therefore,

n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5

n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5

and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.

The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:

Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.

Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)

n*p = ?

n*q = ?

Learn to know more about binomial experiments at

brainly.com/question/1580153

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP IT WOULD BE VERY MUCH APPRECIATED! Last year, James earned £1,600 per month.
True [87]
Answer: £11.69

Explanation:

1) Work out 2% of £1600:
1600 x 2/100 =36

2) Add it on to the original number to get his new monthly pay:
1600 + 36 = £1636

3) Work out his yearly pay by:

a) finding the amount of months he worked:
46 / 4 = 11.5 months

b) Divide 11.5 into 2 bits and add them on:
1636 x 11 = 17997
1636 x 0.5 = 818

17997 + 818 = £18814

4) To get his pay per week:

18814 / 46 = £409

5) Finally, to get his pay per hour:

409 / 35 = 11.68671...
= £ 11.69
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need answers HELP MEEE TPLEASE
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

answer is 89.23.I hope this answer will help you

6 0
3 years ago
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