If 1 pint equals 2 cups then 5 pints equals 10 cups
Because 5 times 2 equals 10. Hope this helps.
Answer:
f(-1)=8
Step-by-step explanation:
Just plug in x=-1 into the function:
f(x)=6-2x
y=6-2(-1)
y=6+2
y=8
So f(-1)=8
15/100*70000=$10500
$40000+$10500= $50,000
He will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning next week.
There are 10 balls in each container; for 6 containers, this gives us 10^6 = 1,000,000. There is 1 correct combination of balls, so his chance the first week is 1/1,000,000.
The second week, 1 ball is removed from each container; this will give us 9^6 = 531,441 chances. There is 1 correct combination, so he will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning.
