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Ira Lisetskai [31]
3 years ago
6

​Cartwright's, a​ home-improvement store​ chain, reported these summarized​ figures: ​(Click the icon to view the income​ statem

ent.)
​(Click the icon to view the balance​ sheets.)
Compute the​ following:
a. The rate of inventory turnover for .
b. ​Days' sales in average receivables during . Assume all sales are on credit.
a. Compute the rate of inventory turnover for . First enter the​ formula, then compute the inventory turnover for . ​(Round your answer to two decimal​ places.) Cost of goods sold / Average inventory = Inventory turnover $21,766,030 / $4,433,000 = 4.91
b. Compute the d​ays' sales in average receivables during . Enter the​ formula, then compute the​ days' sales in average receivables during .
​(Round your answer to two decimal​ places.)
Business
1 answer:
grandymaker [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. 4.91

b. 2.50 days

Explanation:

a. Inventory turnover

= Cost of goods sold / Average inventory

Average inventory =( Ending inventory + Opening inventory) / 2

= (4,676,000 + 4,190,000) / 2

= $4,433,000

Inventory turnover = 21,766,030 / $4,433,000

= 4.91

b. D​ays' sales in average receivables

= Average Account Receivables / Average daily sales

Average account receivables = (Ending receivables + Opening receivables) / 2

= (100,800 + 378,500) / 2

= $239,650

Average daily Sales = Sales / 365

= 34,988,900 / 365

= $95,860

D​ays' sales in average receivables = 239,650 / 95,860

= 2.50 days

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jekas [21]

Answer:

Product B

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the Product that is most profitable.

Product A Product B

Contribution margin per unit $289.20 $221.40

÷ Machine hours 12 machine hours 9machine hours

Contribution margin per bottleneck hour 24.1 24.6

(Product A= 289.20/12=24.1)

(Product B =$221.40/9=24.6)

Therefore based on the above calculation PRODUCT B is the most profitable

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How do you give bainliest
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3 years ago
You work as a financial consultant for a major national company. One of your clients, Kay, comes in to talk to you about a new i
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

Under government bankruptcy laws of the United States, anybody can declare financial insolvency in order to look for help from leasers. In any case, this comes to the detriment of harming one's financial assessments for quite a while (now and then upto a multi year time span) alongside bringing about critical lawful,, procedural and court charges.  

That being stated, liquidations are significantly troublesome procedures essentially in light of the fact that loan bosses would not need any account holder to take the easy way off in the event that the indebted person wouldn't like to restitution. This is considerably progressively evident if there should be an occurrence of understudy advances where the borrower (Kay for this situation) needs to demonstrate without sensible uncertainty that he/she would confront "undue hardship" in the event that he/she were to continue with credit reimbursements. The "undue hardship" demonstrating part is available to an assortment of understandings, rounds of questioning and lawful examination by the courtroom. Most courts use the "Brunner Test" to decide an indebted person's qualification for understudy advance release. The key arrangements of the test are set somewhere around the United States Department of Education's, Federal Student Aid Office as given beneath:  

(a) The account holder, in view of his/her present pay and costs, can't keep up a better than average "insignificant" way of life for himself/herself and his/her wards in the event that he/she were to proceed with the advance reimbursements.  

(b) Additional conditions demonstrate certain the way that this condition will prevail for a larger part of the residency of the advance reimbursement.  

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In this specific situation, Kay would be in an ideal situation in attempting to get the advance deferred, on the off chance that she declares financial insolvency post changing her activity. This is so on the grounds that her present place of employment pays enough to reimburse her understudy advance and consequently don't meet two of the three Brunner Test models. Exchanging over to the non benefit employment would compromise her present way of life (and most likely that of her wards) and adjusts to the fundamental soul of the "Brunner Test". It would off base be upto her legitimate insight to demonstrate this danger (post work change) to her expectation for everyday comforts before the court and addition an understudy advance waiver.

7 0
3 years ago
As the manager of Margarita Mexican​ Restaurant, you must deal with a variety of business transactions. Provide an explanation f
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

A. Debit Equipment and credit Cash.

  • You purchase equipment and you pay in cash.

B. Debit Dividends and credit Cash.

  • You paid cash dividends.

C. Debit Wages Payable and credit Cash.

  • You paid wages that you owed to your employees. Generally wages are paid at the end of the week and not all months end on a weekend. So you must record wages payable until you actually pay the wages.

D. Debit Equipment and credit Common Stock.

  • You received equipment in exchange for common stock.

E. Debit Cash and credit Unearned Revenue.

  • You received cash in advance for some food that you will deliver in the future.

F. Debit Advertising Expense and credit Cash.

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G. Debit Cash and credit Service Revenue.

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7 0
4 years ago
Titan Mining Corporation has 6.3 million shares of common stock outstanding, 220,000 shares of 3.6 percent preferred stock outst
Shkiper50 [21]

The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

a.

We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:

Market value of debt = MVD = 105,000*($1,000)*(1.07) = $25,750,000

Market value of preferred cost = MVP = 220,000*($83) = $18,260,000

Market value of equity = MVE = 6,300,000*($73) = $459,900,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $25,750,000 + 18,260,000+ 459,900,000

V = $503,910,000

b.

So, the market value weights of the company's financing are:

D/V = $25,750,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0511

P/V = $18,260,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0362

E/V = $459,900,000/$503,910,000 = 0.9127

For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.

First, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .031 + 1.15(.071)

RE = 0.1030, or 10.03%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

P0 = $1,070 = $26.50(PVIFAR%,34) + $1,000(PVIFR%,34)

R = 2.228%

YTM = 2.228% × 2

YTM = 4.46%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RD = (1 - .22)(.0446)

RD = .0348, or 3.48%

The cost of preferred stock is:

RP = $3.60/$73

RP = .0493, or 4.93%

Now we can calculate the WACC as:

WACC = 0.0511(.0348) + 0.0362(.0493) + 0.9127(.1003)

WACC =0.0933, or 9.33%

Hence, The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

Learn more about equity valuation:

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2 years ago
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