All categories

3 years ago

Pls answer i will give brainliest pls

Mathematics

1 answer:

Gelneren [198K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

In the slope intercept equation of the line the number that not multiplies the x or the y indicates where the line intercept the y axis

so in this cas the line intercept the y axis in the point (0,2)

so the answer is B

You might be interested in

A sample of size 6 will be drawn from a normal population with mean 61 and standard deviation 14. Use the TI-84 Plus calculator.

AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

$X \sim N(61,14)$

Where $\mu=61$ and $\sigma=14$

Since the distribution for X is normal then the distribution for the sample mean is also normal and given by:

$\bar X \sim N(\mu, \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}})$

$\mu_{\bar X} = 61$

$\sigma_{\bar X}= \frac{14}{\sqrt{6}}= 5.715$

So then is appropiate use the normal distribution to find the probabilities for $\bar X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

Normal distribution, is a "probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean".

The Z-score is "a numerical measurement used in statistics of a value's relationship to the mean (average) of a group of values, measured in terms of standard deviations from the mean". The letter $\phi(b)$ is used to denote the cumulative area for a b quantile on the normal standard distribution, or in other words: $\phi(b)=P(z$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable that represent the variable of interest of a population, and for this case we know the distribution for X is given by:

$X \sim N(61,14)$

Where $\mu=61$ and $\sigma=14$

Since the distribution for X is normal then the distribution for the sample mean $\bar X$ is also normal and given by:

$\bar X \sim N(\mu, \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}})$

$\mu_{\bar X} = 61$

$\sigma_{\bar X}= \frac{14}{\sqrt{6}}= 5.715$

So then is appropiate use the normal distribution to find the probabilities for $\bar X$

8 0

2 years ago

Is the following statement correct? Explain.

Maksim231197 [3]

Answer: The answer is NO.

Step-by-step explanation: The given statement is -

If the graph of two equations are coincident lines, then that system of equations will have no solution.

We are to check whether the above statement is correct or not.

Any two equations having graphs as coincident lines are of the form -

$ax+by=c,\\\\dax+dby=dc,\\\\\textup{where}~~d\neq 1.$

If we take d = 1, then both the equations will be same.

Now, subtracting the second equation from first, we have

$a(1-d)x+b(1-d)y=c(1-d)\\\\\Rightarrow ax+by=c,~\textup{since}~d\neq 1,~\textup{so}~1-d\neq 0.$

Again, we will get the first equation, which is linear in two unknown variables. So, the system will have infinite number of solutions, which consists of the points lying on the line.

For example, see the attached figure, the graphs of following two equations is drawn and they are coincident. Also, the result is again the same straight line which has infinite number of points on it. These points makes the solution for the following system.

$2x+5y=10,\\\\6x+15y=30.$