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malfutka [58]
3 years ago
10

Suppose that there is a tax of $1 per unit, and the elasticity of supply is 3 and the elasticity of demand is 2 (in absolute val

ue). How much of the $1 tax is paid by sellers?
Business
1 answer:
Alisiya [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The amount of the $1 tax that is paid by sellers is $0.40.

Explanation:

The amount of tax paid by the sellers can be calculated using the following 2 steps:

Step 1: Calculation of the tax burden of the seller

This can be calculated using the following formula:

Tax burden of the seller = Elasticity of demand / (Elasticity of demand + Elasticity of supply) ............... (1)

Where;

Tax burden of the seller = ?

Elasticity of demand = 2

Elasticity of supply = 3

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Tax burden of the seller = 2 / (2 + 3) = 2 / 5 = 0.40, or 40%

Step 2: Calculation of the amount of the $1 tax that is paid by sellers

This can be calculated using the following formula:

Tax paid by the sellers = Tax amount * Tax burden of the seller .................. (2)

Where;

Tax amount = $1

Tax burden of the seller = 40%

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

Tax paid by the sellers = $1 * 40% = $0.40

Therefore, the amount of the $1 tax that is paid by sellers is $0.40.

Additional note:

The answer above clearly demonstrates what obtains in economics that when supply is more elastic than demand, sellers will bear less of the tax burden, and when demand is more elastic than supply, sellers will bear more of the tax burden.

From the question, the fact that the elasticity of supply is 3 and the elasticity of demand is 2 (in absolute value) indicates that supply is more elastic than demand. This makes the sellers to bear only 40% of the tax burden while the buyers bear the remaining 60%.

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Answer:

Over applied Overhead =$ 42,500

Explanation:

Actual Overhead $325,000

Estimated Overhead $350,000

Over applied overhead is when the Predetermined overhead is more than the actual overhead . Under applied overhead is when the Predetermined overhead is less than the actual overhead .

Predetermined Overhead rate= Overhead / total direct labor hours

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Applied Overhead = Predetermined Overhead rate( actual direct labor hours)

                               = 70 % (525,000) = $367,500

Applied Overhead $367,500

Less Actual Overhead $325,000

Over applied Overhead =$ 42,500

5 0
3 years ago
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vlabodo [156]

Answer:

The answer is stockholders' equity is overstated

Explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
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bixtya [17]

Answer:

the long-run framework directs one to avoid deficits; in the short-run framework deficits are useful if the economy is significantly below potential.

Explanation:

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<u>The reason is that in the short-run, deficits offer economic solutions by being an antidote to recessions, hence they could be a strategy of recession management in the short run</u>

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Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Quantitative management -

It is the method by which mathematical and computer technologies are taken into consideration , in order to filter out the financial statistics to select the stocks , is referred to as quantitative management.

The model is very basic to use as once it is established can be used easily.

Hence, from the given statement of the question ,

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5 0
4 years ago
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Answer:

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7 0
4 years ago
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