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3 years ago

11

Tim and two of his friends were sharing an apartment and splitting the rent equally. If the rent costs x dollars per month, whic

h expression describes how much Tim’s portion of the rent is?

1 answer:

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: (x/3)m

Step-by-step explanation:

Tim has to pay 1/3 of the rent per month

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val has 2 hours to finish a slide presentation. it takes her 1 over 6 hour to create each slide. will val have enough time to cr

vitfil [10]

Answer:

Yes she can.

Step-by-step explanation:

Val can make 6 slides in an hour.

1/6 * 60 minutes = 10 minutes. per slide

10 20 30 40 50 60 gives you six sldes, 1 every ten minutes.

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In one hour, she can produce 6 slides.

In two hours, she can produce 12 slides (2 * 6 = 12)

Since she only needs 1 hour and 40 minutes to produce 10 slides, she is under her time limit of 2 hours.

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3 years ago

What is the slope of the line that passes through

Zarrin [17]

Start with the slope formula.

m = y₂ - y₁ / x₂ - x₁

m = -6 - 3 / 5 - -2

m = -9 / 7

So the slope is -9/7.

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3 years ago

The table shows how many middle school and high school students prefer playing each type of instrument. How would you find the j

BARSIC [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

14. Classify Each Angle Pair then find the value of X

monitta

Set the two equation equal to each other to solve for x. Angles are acute because they are less than 90 degrees.

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3 years ago

What is the definite integral of log (tan x) with range from 90 to 0

nasty-shy [4]

Substituting <em>x</em> with <em>π</em>/2 - <em>x</em> gives the equivalent integral,

$\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan(x))\,\mathrm dx=-\int_{\frac\pi2}^0\log(\cot(x))(-\mathrm dx)=\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot(x))\,\mathrm dx$

So if we let <em>J</em> denote the value of the integral, we have

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$\implies 2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\left(\log(\tan (x))+\log(\cot (x))\right)\,\mathrm dx$

Condensing the logarithms, we have

log(tan(<em>x</em>)) + log(cot(<em>x</em>)) = log(tan(<em>x</em>) cot(<em>x</em>)) = log(1) = 0

since cot(<em>x</em>) = 1/tan(<em>x</em>), which means

$2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}0\,\mathrm dx=0$

and so the original integral has a value of <em>J</em> = 0.

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3 years ago