An argument that is not against specializing in a single good in the real world is that specialization in a single good makes dumping easier and more effective.
If a country specializes in a single good, less waste will be produced and it can be dumped easily at one place and can be used or recycled more easily than to dump several different kinds of goods as they will need different technologies and to segregate them will be a hard job to do.
Countries improve their production of the commodity in which they specialize. There are many benefits to consumers if a country does so as specialization lowers the opportunity cost of production, increasing global production and lowering prices. These reduced pricing and increased supply benefit consumers.
To learn more about specialization in single good here
brainly.com/question/19018593
#SPJ4
Answer:
The solution to this question can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
In point a:
When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.
In point b:
Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."
Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.
Please find the graph file in the attachment.
Answer:
(a) $210,000
(b) $351,500
Explanation:
(a) Given that,
Fair value of equipment = $1,440,000
Face Amount of the note = $1,230,000
Gain on sale:
= Fair value of equipment - Face Amount of the note
= $1,440,000 - $1,230,000
= $210,000
(b) Given that,
Accrued Interest Payable = $290,000
Interest rate = 5%
Gain on the partial settlement and restructure of the debt:
= Accrued Interest Payable + (Face amount of note × Interest rate)
= $290,000 + ($1,230,000 × 5%)
= $290,000 + $61,500
= $351,500
Explanation:
Debt ratio is basically the ratio between the total debts and the total assets of a company. It shows the percentage of total debts of the company in accordance or in comparison of the total assets. If the debt ratio is high, it means the company has more liabilities than the assets. Higher debt ratio may lead a company towards default.
In this question, 101.5% debt ratio means the total liabilities of the company are 1.5% more than the total assets of the company. This shows that the company's debt ratio is high. Liabilities are more than the assets. In this situation, a company is considered at a risk if precautionary measures are not taken immediately.
Answer:
A. 0.3204 B. $14.669
Explanation:
Mean = 8.9 SD = 4.5
Required probability = P (X >/= 550/50)
P(X>/=11) = 1 - P[(X - mean/SD) < (11 - mean)/SD]
= 1 - P(Z < (11-8.9)/4.5)
P(X>/=11) = 1 - P(Z < 0.4666667)
Using Excel NORMDIST(0.4666667,0,1,1)
P(X>/=11) = 1 - 0.6796 = 0.3204
The probability that she will earn at least $550 = 0.3204
b. P
(
X > x
) = 0.10
1 − P
(
X − mean)/SD ≤ (x − mean)
/SD = 0.10
P
(
Z ≤ z
) = 0.90
Where,
z = (x − mean
)/SD
Excel function for the value of z:
=NORMSINV(0.9)
=1.282
Hence (x - mean)/SD = 1.282
= (x - 8.9)/4.5 = 1.282
x = (1.282*4.5) + 8.9
x = 14.669
He earns $14.669 on the best 10% of such weekends.
