Answer:
Wages expense Dr ($900 × 3 days) $2,700
To wages payable $2,700
(being wages expense is recorded)
Step-by-step explanation:
The adjusting entry is as follows
Wages expense Dr ($900 × 3 days) $2,700
To wages payable $2,700
(being wages expense is recorded)
Here the wages expense is debited as it increased the expense and credited the wages payable as it also increased the liability
Since on Jan 26, it is friday so the remaining days would be 3
2 for the whole number and 2/1 for the fraction
Answer:
the slope of the regression equation for predicting our Exam 2 scores from Exam 1 scores is 0.492
And the y-intercept of the regression equation for predicting our Exam 2 scores from Exam 1 is 33.688
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the data in the question;
mean X" = 86
SD σx = 10
Y" = 76
SD σy = 8.2
r = 0.6
Here, Exam 2 is dependent and Exam 1 is independent.
The Regression equation is
y - Y" = r × σy/σx ( x - x" )
we substitute
y - 76 = 0.6 × 8.2/10 ( x - 86 )
y - 76 = 0.492( x - 86 )
y - 76 = 0.492x - 42.312
y = 0.492x - 42.312 + 76
y = 0.492x + 33.688
Hence, the slope of the regression equation for predicting our Exam 2 scores from Exam 1 scores is 0.492
And the y-intercept of the regression equation for predicting our Exam 2 scores from Exam 1 is 33.688