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Solnce55 [7]
3 years ago
8

Pie Co. uses the installment sales method to recognize revenue. Customers pay the installment notes in 24 equal monthly amounts,

which include 12% interest. What is an installment note's receivable balance six months after the sale?A. 75% of the original sales price.
B. Less than 75% of the original sales price.

C. The present value of the remaining monthly payments discounted at 12%.

D. Less than the present value of the remaining monthly payments discounted at 12%.
Business
1 answer:
Nataliya [291]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

C. The present value of the remaining monthly payments discounted at 12%.

Explanation:

To answer the question I have used following values to workout

Original Sales Value = 500,000

Interest rate  = 12%

Numbers of periods = 24

First I calculate the Equal annual installment payment by using following excel formula

=PMT(rate,nper,pv,[fv],[type])

Where

PMT = Equal Annual Payment

rate = Interst rate = 12%/12 = 1%

nper = Tota numbers of payment = 24 payments

pv = oroginal sales value = 500,000

FV = Value outstanding after 24 payments = 0

Type = The payment made at the start or end of the year ( 0 for the payment made at the end of the period and 1 for the payment made at the beginning of the period ) = 0

placing values in the formula

=PMT(1%,24,50,000,0,0)

= $23,536.74  

Now use these values to make the schedule which is attached with this answer.

After six Payment

Outstanding value = 385,961.72  

Original sales price = 500,000

Percentage of outstanding balance to original sales value = 385,961.72 / 500,000 = 0.77 = 77%

The reamining balance is above 75% of the original sales price.

Note:

A payment schedule is attached for reference

Download pdf
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Asset A and B have expected returns of 5% and 3% per year respectively. Their annual volatilities are both 20% and the correlati
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

1. Weight of A=0.5, Weight of B= 0.5

2. Asset A has the highest shape ratio. The weight of A and B in the optimal risky portfolio that has the highest shape ratio is:

Weight of A= 0.105, Weight of B= 0.895

Explanation:

Expected return of Asset A= 5%Expected return of Asset A= 5%

Expected return of Asset B= 3%

Annual volatilities of Asset A= 20%

Annual votalities of Asset B= 20%

1. Correlation coefficient = 30% = 0.3 < 1

Risk Free Rate = 1% =0.01

1. Weight of A and B in portfolio with minimal risk is:

Weight of A= β^2B - Cov (XAXB) /β^2A + β^2B - 2Cov (XAXB)

Therefore,

CovXAXB = PAB (Volatility of A) (Volatility of B)

= 0.3 × 0.2 × 0.2

= 0.012

Hence,

Weight of A= (0.2)^2 - 0.012 / (0.2)^2 + (0.2)^2 - 2(0.012)

Weight of A= 0.04 - 0.012 / 0.04 + 0.04 - 0.024

= 0.028/ 0.08 - 0.024

= 0.028/ 0.056

=0.5

Weight of A = 0.5

Weight of B= 1 - Weight of A

Weight of B= 1 - 0.5

Weight of B= 0.5

2. Shape ratio of A= RA - Rf / β

= 0.05 - 0.01 / 2

= 0.04/2

= 0.02 =20%

Shape ratio of B= RB - Rf / β

= 0.03 - 0.01/ 2

0.02 / 2

=0.01 = 10%

So, Asset A has the highest shape ratio

Cov (XAXB) = PAB (Volatility of A) (Volatility of B)

= 0.03 × 0.2 × 0.1

= 0.006

Weight of A= β^2B - Cov (XAXB) /β^2A + β^2B - 2Cov (XAXB)

Weight of A = (0.1)^2 - 0.006 / (0.2)^2 + (0.1)^2 - 2(0.006)

= 0.01 - 0.006 / 0.04 +0.01 - 0.012

= 0.004/ 0.05 - 0.012

= 0.004/ 0.038

= 0.105

Weight of A = 0.105

Weight of B= 1 - 0.105

Weight of B= 0.895

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Answer:

$7,514

Explanation:

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Using this formula

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Bond interest expense=$150,272*5%

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Bond interest expense=$7,514 Approximately

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