Answer:
Minimum transfer price = $21
Explanation:
<em>Transfer price is the price at which goods are exchange between branches or divisions of the same group</em>
<em>Where a division is operating at the less than the existing capacity, to optimist the group profit, the minimum transfer price should be set as follows</em>
Minimum transfer price = Variable cost
Note that the fixed of $12 per unit (i.e 33-21) is irrelevant for this purpose, whether or not Hinges produces, it will be incurred either way.
It is worthy of note that there is no opportunity cost associated with any transfer to the Doors division because Hinges is currently having excess capacity.
Therefore, any offering price equal to or above the variable cost of $21 would be acceptable and optimize the group profit.
Hence, the minimum transfer price = $21
Answer:
B)Since the development of human capital is an important determinant of economic growth, Brazil's literacy and reading rates suggests its potential economic growth rate is lower.
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed about Brazil having a population of about 210 million, with about 150 million over the age of 15. And Of these, an estimated 25 percent, or 37.5 million people, are functionally illiterate, and also compare how the typical literate individual reads only about two nonacademic books per year, which is less than half the number read by the typical literate U.S. or European resident.
From the view of New growth theory,the option that explains the implications of Brazil's literacy and reading rates for its growth prospects is that Since the development of human capital is an important determinant of economic growth, Brazil's literacy and reading rates suggests its potential economic growth rate is lower.
New growth theory, which was attributed to Paul Romer, explains about Economic growth in the long run in related to internal factors of with knowledge as well as human capital. In this scenario Brazil should arrive to make sure the literacy rate among people is increased as possible
Answer:
Option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
The Journal entries are as follows:
(i) On November 1, 2015
Retained Earnings [$3 × 20,000] A/c Dr. $60,000
To Dividend Payable $60,000
(To record the declaration of dividend)
(ii) On November 30, 2015
Dividend Payable A/c Dr. $60,000
To cash A/c $60,000
(To record the payment of dividend)
Answer:
The amount of dividends paid to common stockholders in 2016 is $4000
Explanation:
The cumulative preferred shares are the shares that accumulate dividends in case the dividends on these shares are not paid or paid partially in a year. The accumulated dividends will need to be paid first whenever the company declares dividends.
The amounts of dividends on preferred share for one year is,
Dividends - Preferred shares = 20 * 0.05 * 1500 = $1500
Thus, the accumulated dividends on these preferred shares at start of 2016 is,
Accumulated dividends - Preferred shares = 1500 * 3 = $4500
The common shares holders are paid after the preferred share holders have been paid. This means that we will deduct the amount of accumulated dividends on preferred shares and the dividends for this year on preferred shares from the total dividends to calculate the amount to be paid to common share holders as dividends.
Common stock dividends = 10000 - (4500 + 1500) = $4000
This employee played the role of a: whistleblower.
