Answer:
25%
Step-by-step explanation:
We need to first convert 3/5th to percentage so we are only dealing with percentage.
3/5 doing division would give us 0.6
Multiply that by 100, we get
0.6 * 100 = 60%
Thus, now we can say:
Walking = 15%
Driving = 60%
The remaining time is cycling. How much?
15 % + 60 % + cycling = 100%
75% + cycling = 100%
Cycling = 100 - 75 = 25%
Answer:
The third answer
Step-by-step explanation:
(side note: You probably need to use a calculator that can calculate pi)
The formula to find the area of a circle is pi r squared.
In this case, pi times r squared is 19.63495....... continued
This is probably going to be rounded
so... 19.63
For all of the circles, this is multiplied by 4.
This is 78.52
The area of the square is 100 cm since 10 times 10 is 100
You take 100 cm and then subtract it by 78.54
Voila! now you have 21.46
A. -6+2y
Step-by-step explanation:
-2×3-2×(-y)
multiply the numbers
-6-2×(-y)
multiplying two negatives equals a positive
-6+2y
Answer:
There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.
<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing. So, the awnser would have to be. D </u>
Step-by-step explanation:
A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.
B. It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.
C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.
D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win
The probability that the person pulls 1 blue M&M given that one is only allowed to pull 5 random M&M's per day will be 0.6450.
<h3>How to calculate probability?</h3>
From the information given, there are 1,023 M&M's in a bag and out of 1,023 M&M's, 132 M&M's are blue.
Therefore, the probability of getting a blue M&M will be:
= 132/1023
= 0.1290
Therefore, since the person is given the chance to pull 5 random M&M's per day, the probability will be:
= 0.1290 × 5
= 0.6450
Learn more about probability on:
brainly.com/question/24756209
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