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dybincka [34]
3 years ago
14

Nikhil gets paid a 5 percent commission on every pair of shoes that he sells. He earned $1.00 on the last pair of shoes that he

sold. The expression that can be used to represent x, the price of the shoes, What was the price of the shoes?
Mathematics
1 answer:
natulia [17]3 years ago
5 0
X= 1.00/5% the answer is 20$ 

20 * 5% = 1 
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GOLF It costs $12 to attend a golf clinic
Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

you start with 30.00

the colf costs 12.00 so 30.00-12.00=18.00/3

6

4 0
3 years ago
You buy a storage rack that holds 40 CDs you have 27 CDs write an inequalityt that describes how many more cds you can buy and s
MAVERICK [17]
<span>CD's must be 40 or below, so CD's total≤ 40
 If you already have 27, than 27+(number of CDs bought)</span><span>≤ 40
27+x=40(max)
x=(40-27)
x=13 CDs can be bought, at maximum
so (CDs purchased)</span><span> ≤ 13
Therefore, 15 CDs would be too many to fit in the rack </span>
5 0
2 years ago
Use the following graph of the function f(x) = −3x4 − x3 + 3x2 + x + 3 to answer this question: graph of negative 3 x to the fou
Serggg [28]

Answer:

The average rate of change from x=0 to x=1 for f(x) is 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the function f(x)=-3x^{4}-x^{3}+3x^{2}+x+3.

Now, the rate average rate of change of a function from y=x_{1} to y=x_{2} is given by \frac{f(x_{2})-f(x_{1})}{x_{2}-x_{1}}.

As, we need the rate of change from x = 0 to x = 1.

So, we will find the values of f(0) and f(1).

i.e. f(0)=-3\times0^{4}-0^{3}+3\times0^{2}+0+3 i.e. f(0)  = 3

and f(1)=-3\times1^{4}-1^{3}+3\times1^{2}+1+3 i.e. f(1)=-3-1+3+1+3 i.e. f(1) = 3

Thus, the rate of change from x=0 to x=1 is \frac{f(1)-f(0)}{1-0} i.e.  \frac{3-3}{1-0} i.e. 0

Hence, the average rate of change from x=0 to x=1 for f(x) is 0.

7 0
3 years ago
Is −1
bulgar [2K]

Answer:

B: No, because -1/4 is to the right of -3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Just did the question

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ben and Tom each take a driving test.
GaryK [48]

Answer:

(b)0.56

(c)0.38

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)The tree diagram is attached.

P(Ben Fails)=1-0.8=0.2

P(Tom Fails)=1-0.7=0.3

(b)Probability that  both will pass their driving test.

P(both will pass)=0.8 X 0.7 =0.56

(c)Probability that  only one of them will pass their  driving test.

P(Tom Bass, Ben Fails OR Ben Pass, Tom Fails)

=(0.7 X 0.2)+(0.8 X 0.3)

=0.14+0.24

=0.38

3 0
3 years ago
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