Let's use the variable "r" to represent the investment rate of the stocks:
2r(500) + r(800) = 45
1000r + 800r = 45
1800r = 45
r = 0.025
2r = 0.05
The $500 is invested at 5%
Answer:
x = 18.64
Step-by-step explanation:
use tan:
⇒ tan = 
⇒ tan 46 = 
tan of 46 is 1.0355
⇒ 1.0356 = 
multiply 18 on both sides
⇒ 1.0355 x 18 =
x 18
⇒ 18.64 = x
Answers:
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Explanation:
If a set has n elements inside it, then it has 2^n different subsets.
Consider a set like {a,b,c}. It has n = 3 elements.
It has 2^n = 2^3 = 8 subsets
Those 8 subsets are...
- {a,b,c} ..... any set is a subset of itself
- {a,b}
- {a,c}
- {b,c}
- {a}
- {b}
- {c}
- { } .... the empty set
As you can see, each subset consists of items that are selected from the original set {a,b,c}. We can't have any repeat letters.
In that list, items 2 through 4 represent subsets with exactly two things inside it. Items 5 through 7 are known as singletons as they only have one item inside each set. The empty set can be written with the symbol
or you could have a pair of braces with nothing inside them. The empty set is a subset of any set.
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Note how I included {a,b,c} as a subset. Any set is a subset of itself.
A proper subset will ignore the original set and only look at smaller subsets. If we say B is a proper subset of A, then set B will have fewer items compared to set A. Without the "proper" in there, it's possible that A = B.
So all we've done really is kick out one set which drops 2^n to (2^n)-1 when counting the number of proper subsets. I'm using parenthesis to indicate the "-1" is not part of the exponent. If you wrote this on your paper, then you would likely write 
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For this problem, n = 11
This means there are 2^n = 2^11 = 2048 subsets and (2^n)-1 = 2048-1 = 2047 proper subsets.
Let's take this variable by variable. z to the power of 4 over z to the power of one would equal z to the power of 3. At this point, there is no longer a z variable in the denominator.
X to the power of 2 over x to the power of 1 would equal x. At this point there is also no x variable in the denominator.
Y to the power of 1 over y to the power of 2 would equal (1/y). At this point, there is no y in the NUMERATOR.
Final Answer:
Answer:
Neither
Step-by-step explanation:
In direct variation, as one number increases, the other number also increases and as one number decreases, the other number also decreases. In inverse variation, as one number increases, the other number decreases and as as one number decreases, the other number increases.
For direct variation,
and for indirect variation,
where k is a constant.
x 2 5 20 40
y 40 20 5 2
Here,

So, this is neither a direct variation nor an indirect variation.