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Zanzabum
3 years ago
9

What is 1 1/4 × 4 3/4 =

Mathematics
1 answer:
Luden [163]3 years ago
4 0
First, we need to turn this into an improper fraction. Therefore we have: 1 1/4 = 5/4 and 4 3/4 = 19/4
Now we multiply across and eliminate as needed.
5/4 * 19/4 = 95/16
Finally, we reduce and convert to a mixed fraction.
16 goes into 95, 5 times with a remainder of 15. Therefore, we can conclude that our answer is: 5 15/16.
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Andreyy89

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation: an irrational number cannot be written as the quotient of of two integers, it will produce a decimal number that probably goes on forever in a calculator

8 0
3 years ago
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Please help me on this it’s due
olya-2409 [2.1K]
<h3>Answer:  5 cakes</h3>

================================================

Explanation:

Let's start off converting the mixed number 12 & 1/4 to an improper fraction.

a \frac{b}{c} = \frac{a*c+b}{c}\\\\12 \frac{1}{4} = \frac{12*4+1}{4}\\\\12 \frac{1}{4} = \frac{49}{4}\\\\

Do the same for the other mixed number 2 & 1/3.

a \frac{b}{c} = \frac{a*c+b}{c}\\\\2 \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2*3+1}{3}\\\\2 \frac{1}{3} = \frac{7}{3}\\\\

-----------------------

From here, we divide the two fractions. I converted them to improper fractions to make the division process easier.

\frac{49}{4} \div \frac{7}{3} = \frac{49}{4} \times \frac{3}{7}\\\\\frac{49}{4} \div \frac{7}{3} = \frac{49\times 3}{4\times 7}\\\\\frac{49}{4} \div \frac{7}{3} = \frac{7\times 7\times 3}{4\times 7}\\\\\frac{49}{4} \div \frac{7}{3} = \frac{7\times 3}{4}\\\\\frac{49}{4} \div \frac{7}{3} = \frac{21}{4}\\\\

The last step is to convert that result to a mixed number.

\frac{21}{4} = \frac{4*5+1}{4}\\\\\frac{21}{4} = \frac{4*5}{4}+\frac{1}{4}\\\\\frac{21}{4} = 4+\frac{1}{4}\\\\\frac{21}{4} = 5 \frac{1}{4}\\\\

Note that 21/4 = 5.25 and 1/4 = 0.25 to help check the answer.

-----------------------

Therefore, she can make 5 cakes. The fractional portion 1/4 is ignored since we're only considering whole cakes rather than partial ones.

3 0
3 years ago
in the unted states, the height of men are normally distributed with the mean 69 inches and standard deviation 2.8 inches. If 16
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

Probability that their mean height is less than 68 inches is 0.0764.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that in the united states, the height of men are normally distributed with the mean 69 inches and standard deviation 2.8 inches.

Also, 16 men are randomly selected.

<em>Let </em>\bar X<em> = sample mean height</em>

The z-score probability distribution for sample mean is given by;

              Z = \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \mu = population mean height = 69 inches

            \sigma = population standard deviation = 2.8 inches

            n = sample of men = 16

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is away from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value (area) associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X.

So, probability that the mean height of 16 randomly selected men is less than 68 inches is given by = P(\bar X < 68 inches)

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<em>Now, in the z table the P(Z  x) or P(Z < x) is given. So, the above probability is calculated by looking at the value of x = 1.43 in the z table which has an area of 0.92364.</em>

Therefore, probability that their mean height is less than 68 inches is 0.0764.

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Answer:

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