Because I've gone ahead with trying to parameterize
directly and learned the hard way that the resulting integral is large and annoying to work with, I'll propose a less direct approach.
Rather than compute the surface integral over
straight away, let's close off the hemisphere with the disk
of radius 9 centered at the origin and coincident with the plane
. Then by the divergence theorem, since the region
is closed, we have

where
is the interior of
.
has divergence

so the flux over the closed region is

The total flux over the closed surface is equal to the flux over its component surfaces, so we have


Parameterize
by

with
and
. Take the normal vector to
to be

Then the flux of
across
is




John walks 0.6 miles in 1 hour.
Step-by-step explanation:
Distance walked by John = 3 miles
Time period = 5 hours
5 hours = 3 miles
Unit rate is the ratio of two measurements, in which one measurement is one, therefore,
1 hour = 

John walks 0.6 miles in 1 hour.
Keywords: ratio, distance
Learn more about distances at:
#LearnwithBrainly
Answer:
51/4
Step-by-step explanation:
To begin with you have to understand what is the distribution of the random variable. If X represents the point where the bus breaks down. That is correct.
X~ Uniform(0,100)
Then the probability mass function is given as follows.

Now, imagine that the D represents the distance from the break down point to the nearest station. Think about this, the first service station is 20 meters away from city A, and the second station is located 70 meters away from city A then the mid point between 20 and 70 is (70+20)/2 = 45 then we can represent D as follows

Now, as we said before X represents the random variable where the bus breaks down, then we form a new random variable
,
is a random variable as well, remember that there is a theorem that says that
![E[Y] = E[D(X)] = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} D(x) f(x) \,\, dx](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5D%20%3D%20E%5BD%28X%29%5D%20%3D%20%5Cint%5Climits_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%7D%20D%28x%29%20f%28x%29%20%5C%2C%5C%2C%20dx)
Where
is the probability mass function of X. Using the information of our problem
![E[Y] = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} D(x)f(x) dx \\= \frac{1}{100} \bigg[ \int\limits_{0}^{20} x dx +\int\limits_{20}^{45} (x-20) dx +\int\limits_{45}^{70} (70-x) dx +\int\limits_{70}^{100} (x-70) dx \bigg]\\= \frac{51}{4} = 12.75](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5D%20%3D%20%5Cint%5Climits_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%7D%20%20D%28x%29f%28x%29%20dx%20%5C%5C%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B100%7D%20%5Cbigg%5B%20%5Cint%5Climits_%7B0%7D%5E%7B20%7D%20x%20dx%20%2B%5Cint%5Climits_%7B20%7D%5E%7B45%7D%20%28x-20%29%20dx%20%2B%5Cint%5Climits_%7B45%7D%5E%7B70%7D%20%2870-x%29%20dx%20%2B%5Cint%5Climits_%7B70%7D%5E%7B100%7D%20%28x-70%29%20dx%20%20%5Cbigg%5D%5C%5C%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B51%7D%7B4%7D%20%3D%2012.75)
Answer:
2, 4
Step-by-step explanation:
Ok so for this you have to substitute. y=4 so you put a 4 where the y is. This becomes
4 - 3x = -2 We can already rule out (2,2) and (4,2) Why? Because the y is not a 4. So it’s gonna be either (0,4) or (2,4). Now, we have to find x. We have to isolate it. You do this by subtracting 4 from both sides.
4 - 4 - 3x = -2 - 4 Now Simplify
-3x = -6 Why -6? Because you can’t subtract a positive from a negative so it becomes -2 + -4. Since they are both negatives, you just add them together, then put the negative sign.
Now divide -3 from both sides. Which becomes
x = 2
Perimeter = 12
2(w+l) = 12
w + l = 6
area = 8
w x l = 8
the possibility
length = 4
width = 2
i know you can draw it