Answers:
Vertex is (-1,0)
Axis of symmetry is x = -1
============================================
Explanation:
F(x) = 3(x+1)^2
is the same as
y = 3(x-(-1))^2 + 0
which is in the form
y = a(x-h)^2 + k
We can see that
a = 3
h = -1
k = 0
Therefore the vertex is (h,k) = (-1,0)
The axis of symmetry is x = h = -1 which is the equation x = -1
The axis of symmetry in this case is a vertical line through the vertex.
The rational function shown in the graph is:
<h3>
How to determine the function?</h3>
First, we can see that we have an asymptote at x = 5, so the denominator becomes equal to zero when x = 5.
Then the rational function is something like:
We also can see that when x = 6, the function intercepts the x-axis, then we must have that:
g(6) = 0
So we can define:
g(x) = x - 6
So the rational function is:
If you want to learn more about rational functions, you can read:
brainly.com/question/1851758
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Use triangle inequality theorem, which states</u>
<em>"The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the length of the third side."</em>
<u>The sum of two sides compared to the remaining side:</u>
- 7 + 11 = 18 = 18 - not ok
- 7 + 18 = 25 > 11 - ok
- 11 + 18 = 29 > 7 - ok
The sum of two sides is equal to the third side. This makes it impossible to make a triangle. Therefore the answer is no.
Answer: Option B
Step-by-step explanation:
By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.
A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, 
and 
, that have the same output value y
Note that the function 
is not a one-to-one function
When x=2 
When x=8 
Note that the function 
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Note that the function 
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Then the answer is the option B.
You can verify that The function 
is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function
