Answer: So, the probability will be

Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have given that
Number of blue balls =30
Number of red balls = 40
Number of white balls = 30
Since there are 100 balls in total ,
As we have given that there is no white ball chosen.
So, only 70 balls are left with us , from which we choose a blue ball
So, the probability will be

Answer: Yes. (gof)(0) = -5
(gof)(0) means you will find the function of g(f(0)), which means we will find f(0) and plug that value in for x in the function g(x)
We know f(0) is -1, so we can plug -1 into the equation of g(x)
(gof)(0) = (-1) - 4
(gof)(0) = -5
Lets say yu are trying to roll a 4 on both of the dice the probability for both is 1/6 so multiply 1/6 × 1/6 and you get 1/36
so the probability for rolling the same number on each dice is 1/36
hope this helps!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Wheres the diagram??
Incomplete q
Answer:
hey, there!
Step-by-step explanation:
The given is a point (-6,8) through which a line passes. And is perpendicular to the line y = 2x-4
The equation for point (-6,8) is,
(y-8)= m1(x+6)...........(i)
and given equation is y = 2x-4............(ii)
Now, from equation (ii).
slope (m2)= 2 { as equation (ii) is in the form of y= mx+c where m is a slope}.
Now, For perpendicular,
m1×m2= -1
m1×2= -1
Therefore, m1 = -1/2.
Putting, the value of m1 in equation (i).
(y-8) = -1/2×(x+6)
2(y-8)= -1(x+6)
2y - 16 = -x -6
x+2y-10 = 0......... is the required equation.
Hope it helps...