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3 years ago

Is 2/8 greater or less than 1/2

Mathematics

2 answers:

inysia [295]3 years ago

7 0

It would be less then because 4/8 is equal to 1/2. so...if its 2/8 then it's less.

erik [133]3 years ago

5 0

2/8 this less than 1/2

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could you possibly help me with this question? (its not part of a graded assignment, just a review from an online course of mine

Virty [35]

Let:

x = Pounds of walnuts in the mix.

Each pound of walnuts costs $0.80. thus x pounds of walnuts cost 0.8x dollars.

Each pound of cashews costs $1.25 and the mix will contain 8 pounds of cashews, so the cost is 8*$1.25 = $10

The total cost of the mix is, therefore: 0.8x + 10 dollars.

We are also given the pound of mix costs $1.00 and we have a total of 8 + x pounds, so the total cost of the mix is 1*(8 + x) dollars.

Equating both costs:

0.8x + 10 = 1*(8 + x)

Operating:

0.8x + 10 = 8 + x

Subtracting x and 10:

0.8x - x = 8 - 10

Simplifying:

-0.2x = -2

Dividing by -0.2:

x = -2/(-0.2)

x = 10

Answer: 10 pounds

8 0

1 year ago

What is the inverse of f(x)=4x

Allisa [31]

The sum can be rewritten as y=4x, where y=f(x).
Now, we can rewrite the equation a x=y/4
Therefore, inv(f(x))=x/4

3 0

3 years ago

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A toy shop purchases 125 identical stuffed animals for a total cost of $312.50 and sells them for $7 each. What is the percent m

Andrew [12]

23% is maybe the percentage but if not then it maybe a little higher or lower

5 0

3 years ago

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Assume that different groups of couples use the XSORT method of gender selection and each couple gives birth to one baby. The XS

olganol [36]

Answer:

Mean and Standard deviation for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births are 18 and 3 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that he X SORT method is designed to increase the likelihood that a baby will be a girl, but assume that the method has no effect, so the probability of a girl is 0.5.

Now consider a group consisting of 36 couples.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

$P(X=r)=\binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ;x=0,1,2,3,.....$

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 36 couples

r = number of success

p = probability of success which in our question is probability

of a girl, i.e.; p = 0.5

Let X = Numbers of girls in groups of 36 births

So, X ~ Binom(n = 36, p = 0.5)

Now, mean for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births is given by;

Mean, E(X) = $n \times p$ = $36 \times 0.5$ = 18

Also, standard deviation for the numbers of girls in groups of 36 births is given by;

Standard deviation, S.D.(X) = $\sqrt{n\times p\times (1-p)}$

= $\sqrt{36\times 0.5\times (1-0.5)}$

= 3

3 0

3 years ago

2/3 times 3 times 2/7

fomenos

Answer:

4/7

Step-by-step explanation:

2/7 x 3= 6/7. 6/7× 2/3=4/7

7 0

2 years ago

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