3 years ago

I WILL MARK SOMEONE BRIANLIEST!!! SOMEONE HELP

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ierofanga [76]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

$\because \: we \: know \: that \\ {2}^{0} = 1 \\ \\ \implies \: log_{2}1 = 0 \\ (if \: {a}^{m} = n \implies \: log_{a}n = m)$

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D)1