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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP ASAP

Mathematics

1 answer:

Luba_88 [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

If it goes through the orgin

Step-by-step explanation:

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If mZOKL = 80°, then what is mZHKJ? С E А4 N H K M

Nookie1986 [14]

MOKL and mHKJ are vertical angles, so they’re congruent
so mHKJ is also 80°

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3 years ago

Which of the following are solutions to the equation below 3x^2+27x+54=0

VikaD [51]

Answer:x=6

Step-by-step explanation:Step-1 : Multiply the coefficient of the first term by the constant 1 • 18 = 18

Step-2 : Find two factors of 18 whose sum equals the coefficient of the middle term, which is -9 .

-18 + -1 = -19

-9 + -2 = -11

-6 + -3 = -9 That's it

Step-3 : Rewrite the polynomial splitting the middle term using the two factors found in step 2 above, -6 and -3

x2 - 6x - 3x - 18

Step-4 : Add up the first 2 terms, pulling out like factors :

x • (x-6)

Add up the last 2 terms, pulling out common factors :

3 • (x-6)

Step-5 : Add up the four terms of step 4 :

(x-3) • (x-6)

Which is the desired factorization

7 0

3 years ago

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The length of a rectangle is 3/2 units greater than its width. If the width is w, which expression gives the perimeter of the re

faltersainse [42]

W+w+(3/2+w)+(3/2+w)=perimeter
4w+6/2=perimeter

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3 years ago

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Help plzzz thank you !

VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

a. Ameribank-$15,157.50

b. Capital Two-$4,646.25

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Tad's savings is $15,000, we calculate his total amount at the end of the year for each bank:

#Ameribank

$A=P+I=P+PRT\\\\=15000+15000\times 0.0105\times 1\\\\=\$15,157.50$

#Huffington( we use the effective rate to calculate the compound amount):

$i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.0095/12)^[12}-1=0.009541\\\\A=P(1+i_m)^n\\\\=15000(1.009541)^1\\\\=\$15,143.12$

#Sixth-Third, Take 1 yrs=52 weeks:

$i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.01/52)^{52}-1=0.01005\\\\A=15000(1.01005)^1\\\\=\$15,150.74$

#Hence, Ameribank is the best option as his money grows to $15,157.50 which is greater than all the remaining two options.

b. We use the compound interest formula $A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}$ to determine which bank gives the best option:

#Capital Two. r=3.75%, n=12,t=4

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0375/12)^{12\times4}\\\\=\$4,646.25$

#J.C Morgan, t=2, r=3.55% n=12

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0355/12)^{12\times 2}\\\\=\$4,293.87$

#Silverman Slacks, n=12,t=3, r=3.65%

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0365/12)^{12\times3}\\\\=\$4,462.14$

We compare the investment amounts after t years:

$Capital>Silver>Morgan=4646.25>4462.14>4293.87$

Hence, Capital two is the best option with an investment amount of $4,646.25

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DENIUS [597]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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