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zhenek [66]
3 years ago
9

Simplify the expression

Mathematics
1 answer:
vekshin13 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the answer is c

Step-by-step explanation:

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I need a better explanation how to find length and area of a triangle
fomenos

Answer:

Height(h) = 24in

Area = 204in²

Step-by-step explanation:

we would use the heron formula because we have all the sides to calulate the area

S  = (A+B+C)/2 = (25 + 17 + 26)/2 = 68/2 = 34

area = √s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)  = √34(34-25)(34-17)(34-26) = √34(9)(17)(8) = √34x9x17x8 = √41616 = 204

area= (1/2)bh

    204 = (1/2)bh b= 17, h =?

204 = (1/2)17h

204 x 2 = 17h

408 = 17h

h = 408/17 = 24in

Height(h) = 24in

Area = 204in²

4 0
3 years ago
What is the correlation coefficient for the data shown in the table?
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

The correlation coefficient is -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we want to get the correlation coefficient for the given dataset

from the table, what do we observe?

As x is increasing by 5 units;

y is decreasing by 5 units

What this mean is that there is a negative correlation between both

Thus, what we have here is that, since the rate of increase/decrease on both ends is of equal magnitude but opposite signs, we can conclude that the correlation coefficient is -1

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A stationary store has decided to accept a large shipment of ball-point pens if an inspection of 19 randomly selected pens yield
Romashka [77]

Given Information:  

Probability of shipment accepted = p = 5%

Probability of shipment not accepted = q = 95%

Total number of pens = n = 19

Required Information:  

Probability of shipment being accepted with no more than 2 defective pens = P( x ≤ 2) = ?  

Answer:

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.933

Step-by-step explanation:

The given problem can be solved using Bernoulli distribution  which is given by

P(n, x) = nCx pˣqⁿ⁻ˣ  

The probability of no more than 2 defective pens means

P( x ≤ 2) = Probability of 0 defective pen + Probability of 1 defective pen + Probability of 2 defective pens

P( x ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)

For P(0) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 0

P(0) = 19C0(0.05)⁰(0.95)¹⁹

P(0) = (1)(1)(0.377)

P(0) = 0.377

For P(1) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 1

P(1) = 19C1(0.05)¹(0.95)¹⁸

P(1) = (19)(0.05)(0.397)

P(1) = 0.377

For P(2) we have p = 0.05, q = 0.95, n = 19 and x = 2

P(2) = 19C2(0.05)²(0.95)¹⁷

P(2) = (171)(0.0025)(0.418)

P(2) = 0.179

Therefore, the required probability is

P( x ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.377 + 0.377 + 0.179

P( x ≤ 2) = 0.933

P( x ≤ 2) = 93.3%

Therefore, the probability that this shipment is accepted with no more than 2 defective pens is 0.933.

8 0
2 years ago
Please someone explain to me how did we multiply the denominator in this
AleksandrR [38]

ok so what you wanna do is use multiplication

8 0
2 years ago
Area and percent . ​
siniylev [52]

Answer:

a. 61.92 in²

b. 21.396 ≈ 21.4%

c. $4.71

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Amount of waste = area of rectangular piece of stock - area of two identical circles cut out

Area of rectangular piece of stock = 24 in × 12 in = 288 in²

Area of the two circles = 2(πr²)

Use 3.14 as π

radius = ½*12 = 6

Area of two circles = 2(3.14*6²) = 226.08 in²

Amount of waste = 288 - 226.08 = 61.92 in²

b. % of the original stock wasted = amount of waste ÷ original stock × 100

= 61.92/288 × 100 = 6,162/288 = 21.396 ≈ 21.4%

c. 288 in² of the piece of stock costs $12.00,

Each cut-out circle of 113.04 in² (226.08/2) will cost = (12*113.04)/288

= 1,356.48/288 = $4.71.

3 0
3 years ago
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