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Savatey [412]
2 years ago
9

The Extreme Reaches Corp. last paid a $1.50 per share annual dividend. The company is planning on paying $3.00, $5.00, $7.50, an

d $10.00 a share over the next four years, respectively. After that the dividend will be a constant $2.50 per share per year forever. What is the market price of this stock if the market rate of return is 15 percent
Business
1 answer:
Dimas [21]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Market price of share = $26.57

Explanation:

According to the dividend valuation model, the value of a stock is the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock discounted at the the required rate of return.

The required  rate of return here is 15%

The dividend growth model a be applied to each of the years as appropriate.

The share price of Extreme Reaches Corp can be computed as follows:

Year                     working                  Present value of Dividend  

1                          3.00 × (1.15) ×(-1) =        2.61

2                             5× (1.15)^(-2) =           3.78

3                            7.50× (1.15^(-3) =         4.93

4                             10.0×  1.15^(-4) =         5,72

5  to infinity       <em>  (see working)     =           </em><u> 9.52</u>

Present value                                               <u>26.57</u>

Working

Present value of dividend from Year 5 to infinity

PV (in year 4) of dividend from  year 5 to infinity = 2.50× 1/(1.15)= 16.66

Present value in year 0 = PV in year 4× 1.15^(-4)

Present value in year 4 = 16.66× 1.15^(-4) = 9.52

Market price of share = $26.57

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Answer:

1. Firms are operating in the short run  - relatively inelastic

2. Firms would have a hard time storing their goods  - relatively inelastic

3. Firms have a large amount of excess capacity  - relatively elastic

4. Firms can easily relocate from one location to another - relatively elastic.

Explanation:

The price elasticity of supply is less in the short run than in the long run. In the short run supplier does not have enough time to adjust the production level so supply is inelastic. The firms facing hard to store their goods then the supply is inelastic. If the firm has spare capacity available then the supply is relatively elastic because supplier can produce more if the demand is greater.  The mobility factor also effects elasticity, if firm can easily relocate itself then the supply is elastic.

6 0
2 years ago
If you put up $21,000 today in exchange for a 8.25 percent, 14-year annuity, what will the annual cash flow be
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

$2,584.34

Explanation:

we can use the present value of an ordinary formula to calculate this:

present value = annual payment x annuity factor

  • present value = $21,000
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annual payment = present value / annuity factor = $21,000 / 8.12586 = $2,584.34

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2 years ago
Tyler Tooling Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products on the basis of machine hours. For the upco
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Answer:

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 49,000

Explanation:

                                          Job 101        Job 102        Job 103

Total Direct materials      $ 19,200     $ 14,400       $ 9,600       $ 43,200

Direct labor                    $ 28,800       $ 11,200        $ 9,600      $ 49,600

Machine hours              1,000 hrs        4,000 hrs      2,000 hrs   7,000 hours

<u>Manufacturing overhead   $ 7000       $ 28,000      14,000 </u>

<u>Total                                $ 55,000         53,600        33,200</u>

Actual overhead costs recorded during the first month of operations totaled $45,000.

<u>Journal Entries </u>

<u>Sr. No                    Particulars                 Debit                   Credit</u>

Job 102              Finished Goods           53,600

                           Work In Process                                     53,600

A journal entry showing the transfer of Job 102 into Finished Goods Inventory upon its completion.

Job 101                Sales                         60,000

                        Cost Of Goods Sold                              60,000

Journal entries to recognize the sales revenue and cost of goods sold for Job 101.

Job 101              Cost of Goods Sold        55,000

                          Finished Goods Inventory                  55,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied =   $ 7000 + $ 28,000+14,000 = $ 49,000

Job 101 = 1000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 7000

Job 102 = 4000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 28000

Job 103 = 2000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 14000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

                                   

      Manufacturing Overhead  Accounts $ 4000  debit                  

              Cost of Goods Sold          $ 4000 Credit

Entry to transfer the balance of the Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold.

(Entry to reduce the amount of Over applied Overhead)                                

                         

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