For the United States, it is not.
Article five of the United States Constitution.
"<span>The Congress, whenever </span>two thirds<span> of both Houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose </span>Amendments<span> to this Constitution, or, on the Application of the Legislatures of </span>two thirds<span> of the several States, shall call a Convention for proposing Amendments, which, in either Case, shall be valid to all Intents and Purposes, as Part of this Constitution, when ratified by the Legislatures of</span>three fourths<span> of the several States, or by Conventions in </span>three fourths<span> thereof, as the </span>one<span> or the other Mode of Ratification may be proposed by the Congress; Provided that no Amendment which may be made prior to the Year </span>One thousand eight hundred and eight<span> shall in any Manner affect the </span>first<span> and </span>fourth<span> Clauses in the </span>Ninth<span> Section of the </span>first<span> Article; and that no State, without its Consent, shall be deprived of its equal </span>Suffrage<span> in the Senate."
This process has happened 26 times and once unconstitutionally (the 16th amendment) for a total of 27 amendments.
To pass a law, there must be a 51% vote in both houses of Congress, and an approval by the president. Or Congress may override the veto by a two-thirds vote. This has been done well over 40,000 times in 2011 alone.
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Answer:
This is pretty interesting. you need help with something about it?
Courts apply the law to specific controversies brought before them. They resolve disputes between people, companies and units of government. Often, courts are called on to uphold limitations on the government. They protect against abuses by all branches of government.
They didn't want a strong central government so they apposed the convention.
