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3 years ago

What is the first step to finding the equation of a line when 2 points are known?

1 answer:

vladimir1956 [14]3 years ago

5 0

The first step to finding the equation of a line when 2 points are known....
the first step would be to use the slope formula to find the slope of the line

You might be interested in

Which of the following represents the prime factortzation of 72?

rjkz [21]

Answer:

2³ x 3²

Step-by-step explanation:

The prime factorization of a number is the process of breaking down a number to a set of prime numbers that their product will give the original number:

2 x 36

2 x 2 x 18

2 x 2 x 2 x 9

2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3

So;

The prime factorization is 2³ x 3²

8 0

3 years ago

F(x) = 722 g(x) = 2.c + 1 Find ( 4) (2 (2). Include any restrictions on the domain.

balandron [24]

Answer:

sorry this question is tough

6 0

2 years ago

Un How many solutions does this system have? 12x-4y=-8 y=3x+2

Talja [164]

Answer:

Infinite

Step-by-step explanation:

Get both in the form y = first.

12x - 4y = -8

-4y = -8 - 12x

y = 2 + 3x

y = 3x + 2

These are the same line so all points are the same so that means there are infinite answers.

If ONLY the number in front of the x was the same there would be 0 answers, they would be parallel lines, and if the number in front of the xs were different there would only be one answer.

3 0

2 years ago

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$