Answer:
The 4th one is the least so you would put that as the first one, then the 2nd one, then the 1st one, then the 3rd one.
Step-by-step explanation:
The fourth one is first because 10 to the power of 0 is 0 times 10 to the power of 1 is still 0 minus 1 to the power of 10 is 1 so 0 minus 1 is -1. The second one is second because 10 to the power of 0 times 10 to the power of 1 is 0, times 1 to the power of 10 is still 0. The first one is third in line because 10 to the power of 0 plus 10 to the power of 1 is 10 times 1 to the power of 10 is 10. The third one is last because its the greatist, 10 to the power of 0 plus 10 to the power of 1 is 10 plus 1 to the power of 10 is 11.
Answer: 196pi in.^2
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide the diameter by two.
You would get 14, then square it, you would get 196.
I WOULD DO THE EASIEST, A.
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: There is 680% increase for the fund.
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have given that
Number of shares they purchased = 1000
Cost of per share at the time of their marriage = $10
So, Amount of fund will be
Cost per share after 30 years = $78
So, Amount of fund will be
Percentage of increase for the fund will be given as
Hence, there is 680% increase for the fund.
