Considering that the subjects are chosen without replacement, they are not independent, and the probability cannot be found using the binomial distribution.
The binomial distribution and the hypergeometric distribution are quite similar, as:
- They find the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials.
- For each trial, there are only two possible outcomes.
- The difference is that the binomial distribution is for independent trials, that is, in each trial, the probability of success is the same, while the hypergeometric distribution is for dependent trials.
- If the sample is without replacement, the trials are not independent, thus the hypergeometric distribution is used, not the binomial.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/21772486
Answer:
ok sooo is there something you need to be figured out orr are you just saying
Step-by-step explanation:
He gave away 8 so he would have 12/20 which is 60% left :)
Theorem
In a triangle, the measure of an exterior angle equals the sum of the measures of its two remote interior angles.
x + y = z
4n - 18 + n + 8 = 133 - 6n
5n - 10 = 133 - 6n
11n = 143
n = 13
z = 133 - 6n = 133 - 6(13) = 133 - 78 = 55
Answer: C. 55
Short answer: NO.
28 cups is exactly equal to 14 pints. (There are 2 cups per pint.)
