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ra1l [238]
3 years ago
7

Rogue Outfitters Inc. has outstanding $1,000 face value that make semiannual payments, and have 10 years remaining to maturity.

If the current price for these bonds is $938.57, and the yield to maturity is 4.78%, what is the coupon rate of these bonds?
Business
1 answer:
Novosadov [1.4K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The coupon rate of these bonds is 4%

Explanation:

The coupon rate is the interest rate written on the face of the bond and the interest payment is made on this rate.

Use the following formula to calculate the coupon rate of the bond

Price of the bond = [ C x ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] + [ F / ( 1 + r )^n ]

Where

F = Face value =  $1,000

Price of the bond = $938.57

r = Yield to maturity = 4.78% x 6/12 = 2.39%

n = Numbers of periods =  10 years x 12/6 = 20 periods

C = Periodic coupon payment =  ?

Placing values in the formula

$938.57 = [ C x ( 1 - ( 1 + 2.39% )^-20 ) / 2.39% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 2.39% )^20 ]

$938.57 = [ C x 15.75237625 ] + $623.52

C x 15.75237625 = $938.57 - $623.52

C x 15.75237625 = $315.05

C = $315.05 / 15.75237625

C = $20 semiannually

C = $20 x 12/6 = $40 annually

Coupon rate = Coupon Payment / Face value = $40 / $1,000 = 0.04 = 4%

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Lee Airlines plans to issue 12-year bonds with a par value of $1,000 that will pay $70 every six months. The bonds have a market
Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

After tax cost of debt = 10.43%

Explanation:

Market price = 960

Flotation cost = 0.07

Market price after Flotation cost = 960*(1-0.07) = 960*0.93 = 892.8

Face value = 1,000

Interest payment (PMT) = 1000*0.07 = 70

Term of payment = 12*2 = 24

Cost of debt before tax = Rate(24, 70, -892.8, 1000, 0)*2

Cost of debt before tax = 0.080198497*2

Cost of debt before tax = 0.160396994

Cost of debt before tax = 16.04%

Tax rate = 35%

After tax cost of debt = 16.04% * (1-35%)

After tax cost of debt = 0.1604*0.65

After tax cost of debt = 0.10426

After tax cost of debt = 10.43%

6 0
3 years ago
Supplies are assets until they are used. When they are used up, their costs are reported as expenses. The costs of unused suppli
mezya [45]

Question Completion:

Describe the accounting treatment of Supplies Expenses.

Answer:

Supplies Expenses are debited while the Supplies account is credited with the supplies expenses.

Explanation:

This accounting treatment of Supplies Expenses reduces the balance of the Supplies account by the amount of supplies used during the period.  Thus, what is left in the Supplies account is the cost of the unused supplies at the end of the accounting period.  The treatment also accords with the accrual concept, which requires that expenses are matched to the revenues that they generate in the period.

7 0
3 years ago
One of the questions on a survey of 1,000 adults asked if today's children will be better off than their parents. Representative
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Dnt understand

6 0
3 years ago
Brewster's is considering a project with a life of 5 years and an initial cost of $120,000. The discount rate for the project is
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

Net present value 27.792‬

Explanation:

<u>Sales</u> 2.100 units x 20 net cash flow =<em> $ 42,000 cash flow per year</em>

<u>Present value of the first three years:</u>

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 42,000

time 3 years

discount rate: 0.12

42000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.12)^{-3} }{0.12} = PV\\

PV $100,876.9133

For year 4 and 5 we need to check for the expected cashflow

<u>We will multiply each outcome by their probability:</u>

1,400 units x $20 per unit x 0.5 chance =  14,000

2,500 units x $20 per unit x 0.5 chance = 25,000

expected return:    <em>39,000</em>

<u>present value of these years:</u>

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $39,000.0000

time   4 end of year 4th

rate  0.12

\frac{39000}{(1 + 0.12)^{4} } = PV  

PV   24,785.21

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $39,000.0000

time   5 end of year 5th

rate  0.12

\frac{39000}{(1 + 0.12)^{5} } = PV  

PV   22,129.65

<u>Net present value</u> will be the present value of the cash flow less the investment.

100,877 + 24,785 + 22,130 - 120,000 = 27.792‬

7 0
4 years ago
A seller listed a home for $200,000 and agreed to pay a commission rate of 5%. The MLS stated that the commission would be share
Virty [35]

Answer:

The answer is: $2,700

Explanation:

The house sold for $180,000 (= 90% x $200,000).

The total commission was $9,000 (= $180,000 x 5%), split in half between listing office and selling office.

The selling broker received his $4,500 commission, and then h paid his selling associate 60% of it.

The selling associate received a $2,700 commission (= 60% x $4,500)

3 0
3 years ago
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