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bogdanovich [222]
2 years ago
15

Sloan Transmissions, Inc., has the following estimates for its new gear assembly project: price = $2,900 per unit; variable cost

s = $580 per unit; fixed costs = $5.2 million; quantity = 88,000 units. Suppose the company believes all of its estimates are accurate only to within ±15 percent. What values should the company use for the four variables given here when it performs its best-case scenario analysis? What about the worst-case scenario?
Business
1 answer:
Sloan [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

in its best case scenario:

selling price = $2,900 + 15% = $3,335 per unit

variable costs = $580 - 15% = $493 per unit

fixed costs = $5.2 million - 15% = $4.42 million

quantity = 88,000 + 15%  = 101,200 units

estimated profits in best case scenario = $337,502,000 - $49,891,600 - $4,420,000 = $283,190,400

in its worst case scenario:

selling price = $2,900 - 15% = $2,465 per unit

variable costs = $580 + 15% = $667 per unit

fixed costs = $5.2 million + 15% = $5.98 million

quantity = 88,000 - 15%  = 74,800 units

estimated profits in best case scenario = $184,382,000 - $49,891,600 - $5,980,000 = $128,510,400

The firm is still profitable because the contribution margin is huge even in the worst case scenario. In he best case scenario the break even point is 1,556 units, while the break even point in the worst case scenario is 3,326 units. It's a very low break even point considering total expected sales.

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Consider the case of long-distance telephone service. In country X, there are 20 providers of long-distance telephone service in
Furkat [3]

Answer:

Country X will have higher growth potential than country Y.

8 0
3 years ago
The amount by which the overhead applied to jobs during a period exceeds the overhead incurred during the period is known as: Mu
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

E. Over applied overhead

Explanation:

Over applied overhead is defined as excess amount of overhead applied during a production period over the actual overhead incurred during that period. In other words, it means excess overhead applied to work over the amount of overhead actually incurred.

When this occurs, it is called favourable variance and it is added to the budgeted profit in the end of the accounting period in a financial statement.

5 0
3 years ago
Warm-Up
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

$1,088.12

Explanation:

The formula for calculating monthly repayments is as below.

M=  P x   <u>  r      </u>

              1 − (1+r)−^n

where p is the loan amount = $220,000

r = 4.3per cent or 0.043 % interest rate per year,

 on monthly basis r will be 0.043/12=0.00358%

n = 30 year, which is 30 x 12 months= 360 months

M= $220,000 x <u> 0.00358    </u>

                         1 - (1+0.00358 ) ^ - 360

M=$220,000 x<u>  0.00358  </u>

                         1- 0.2762

M = $220,000 x (0.00358 /0.7238)

M = $220,000 x 0.0049461

M = 1,088.12

Monthly payments will be $1,088.12

4 0
3 years ago
At December 31, 2019, Blanda Company had a credit balance of $15,000 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. During 2020, Blanda wro
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

journal entries

Write-off

Debit Bad Debts expense $11,000 Credit Accounts receivable $11,000

Recovery

Debit Bank $1,800 Credit Bad Debt Recovered income $1,800

Allowance for Doubtful debt Adjustment

Debit Allowance for doubtful debt Adjustment $4,000 Credit Allowance for doubtful debt $4,000

Explanation:

Write-off

The write-off creates an expense (bad debt) and and decreases an asset ( Accounts receivable)

Recovery

Since the amount has been written off as bad, when it is recovered it is no longer recognized as a payment on accounts receivable but an income the entity thought was lost.

Allowance for doubtful debt adjustment

The differences in the opening balance and closing balance either creates an expense or an income adjustment. These estimates are on net Accounts receivables ( after bad debts) are a negative assets.

19000 - 15000 = 4000(increase) adjustment and is an expense.

7 0
3 years ago
The indifference policy advocates that dividends are irrelevant. firms are indifferent to dividend policy but stockholders are n
n200080 [17]

Answer:

The indifference policy advocates that dividends are irrelevant.

Explanation:

The indifference Policy holds that that dividends do not add value to a company’s stock price.

According to this theory, investors do not need to concern themselves with a company's dividend policy since they have the option to sell a portion of their portfolio of equities if they want cash.

This school of thought believes that a company’s declaration and payment of dividends should have little to no impact on the stock price.

7 0
3 years ago
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