Answer:
C. Employees value the rewards or incentives that are being offered
Explanation:
Let's see the different options for answer...
<u>A. Performance measures are to be linked to the individual's goals</u>
No. Even if the performance measures should be linked to the individual's goals, just the mere existence of such KPI is not sufficient to motivate employees. There has to be some performance reward attached to it.
<u>B. Employees are given very broad performance goals</u>
No. To get a good performance and motivate employees, they must be given clear goals and objectives.
<u>C. Employees value the rewards or incentives that are being offered</u>
Yes. Even if you have good performance measurements, with realistic goals, the employees won't be motivated to reach those goals if the reward doesn't worth the effort.
<u>D. Employees are given limited resources to meet their goals</u>
No. They won't be motivated if they don't think they have the means to achieve those goals.
Answer: D) gain the attention of the consumer.
Explanation:
The first and foremost thing is marketing is to gain the attention of the consumer. This is why Adverts usually start with something eye catching and then move on to explain the product.
All other steps in the marketing process including development of brand awareness cannot be implemented if the consumer's attention is not gained.
The first and foremost goal of marketing in simple terms therefore is to first grab their curiosity then gain their attention.
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Explanation:
The convenience yield reflects the premium of possessing an asset instead of one of its derivates or contracts. This situation arises in front of inverted markets, where holding the asset itself may bring more profits than purchasing a derivate of the same asset.
<em>The convenience yield tends to be positive or zero because the prices of assets cannot fall below zero. In other words, they are not negative.</em>
