The Karger's algorithm relates to graph theory where G=(V,E) is an undirected graph with |E| edges and |V| vertices. The objective is to find the minimum number of cuts in edges in order to separate G into two disjoint graphs. The algorithm is randomized and will, in some cases, give the minimum number of cuts. The more number of trials, the higher probability that the minimum number of cuts will be obtained.
The Karger's algorithm will succeed in finding the minimum cut if every edge contraction does not involve any of the edge set C of the minimum cut.
The probability of success, i.e. obtaining the minimum cut, can be shown to be ≥ 2/(n(n-1))=1/C(n,2), which roughly equals 2/n^2 given in the question.Given: EACH randomized trial using the Karger's algorithm has a success rate of P(success,1) ≥ 2/n^2.
This means that the probability of failure is P(F,1) ≤ (1-2/n^2) for each single trial.
We need to estimate the number of trials, t, such that the probability that all t trials fail is less than 1/n.
Using the multiplication rule in probability theory, this can be expressed as
P(F,t)= (1-2/n^2)^t < 1/n
We will use a tool derived from calculus that
Lim (1-1/x)^x as x->infinity = 1/e, and
(1-1/x)^x < 1/e for x finite.
Setting t=(1/2)n^2 trials, we have
P(F,n^2) = (1-2/n^2)^((1/2)n^2) < 1/e
Finally, if we set t=(1/2)n^2*log(n), [log(n) is log_e(n)]
P(F,(1/2)n^2*log(n))
= (P(F,(1/2)n^2))^log(n)
< (1/e)^log(n)
= 1/(e^log(n))
= 1/n
Therefore, the minimum number of trials, t, such that P(F,t)< 1/n is t=(1/2)(n^2)*log(n) [note: log(n) is natural log]
The answer is B) 43<span>°
Angle ADB is an inscribed angle which means arc AB has an angle twice that of angle ADB. The angle of the arc would be the same as that of the central angle AOB. So, mAOB = 86</span>°. And since, mAOB = mBOC, then mBOC = 86° and arc BC has a measure of 86° as well. Angle BDC intercepts the arc BC which means half of the angle of arc BC is mBDC. So, mBDC = 43<span>°.</span>
Answer:
6) c
7) d
Step-by-step explanation:
6) 25 + 15= 40
40+35=75
Php. 75
7) 29•3=87
150-87=63
Php. 63
Hope this helps!
Answer:
904.778 in.
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula for volume of sphere:
4/3×(3.1426)×(radius)^3
=904.778 inches
