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Alexxx [7]
2 years ago
15

On April 1, a patent with an estimated useful economic life of 12 years was acquired for $1,500,000. In addition, on December 31

, it was estimated that goodwill of $6,000,000 was impaired.
a. Record the acquisition of patent.
b. Journalize the adjusting entry on December 31 for the amortization of the patent rights.
c. Journalize the adjusting entry on December 31 for the impaired goodwill.
Business
1 answer:
Tasya [4]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

April 1

Debit : Patent $1,500,000

Credit : Cash $1,500,000

December 31

Debit : Amortization $125,000

Credit : Accumulated Amortization $125,000

December 31

Debit : Impairment loss  $6,000,000

Credit : Accumulated Impairment loss $6,000,000

Explanation:

Both the Amortization and Impairment loss reduce the value of assets. They are therefore expenses accounted in Income Statement.

Amortization : is the loss of value of an asset due to passage of time.

Amortization Expense = (Cost - Residual Amount) ÷ Useful Life

                                     = ( $1,500,000 - $ 0) ÷ 12

                                     = $125,000

Impairment loss : is the excess of the Carrying Amount of an Asset over its Recoverable Amount( Higher of Value in Use and Fair Value less Cost to Sell)

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4 0
3 years ago
Everett Company has outstanding 30,000 shares of $50 par value, 6% preferred stock and 70,000 shares of $1 par value common stoc
hoa [83]

Answer:

See explanation section.

Explanation:

Requirement A

If the preferred stock is cumulative, cash dividends paid to each class of stock is as follows:

1st year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $0

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $0

As there is no declaration of cash dividend for the first year.

As the preferred stock is cumulative, preferred dividends for the first year will be given in the 2nd year.

2nd year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $310,000 - $8,400

= 301,600

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $4,200 + $4,200 = $8,400

<em>Calculation:</em> 1st year dividend = 70,000 × $1 × 6% = $4,200. It will remain same in the 2nd year for the preferred stock.

3rd year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $90,000 - $4,200

= $85,800

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $4,200

Preferred dividend's remain same for the 3rd year too.

Requirement B

If the preferred stock is non-cumulative, cash dividends paid to each class of stock is as follows:

1st year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $0

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $0

As there is no declaration of cash dividend for the first year.

As the preferred stock is non-cumulative, preferred dividends for the first year will not be given in the 2nd year.

2nd year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $310,000 - $4,200

= 305,800

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $4,200

<em>Calculation:</em> 2nd year dividend = 70,000 × $1 × 6% = $4,200.

3rd year = Cash dividend's for common stock = $90,000 - $4,200

= $85,800

Cash dividend's for preferred stock = $4,200

Preferred dividend's remain same for the 3rd year too.

5 0
3 years ago
Consider the following production function: q = 7LK + 5L^2 - (1/3) L^3. Given the following expressions for the marginal product
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

The  value of the marginal rate of technical substitution when K = 30 and L = 15 is 1.285

Explanation:

MRTS_KL = MP_L/MP_K

                 = (7K + 10L - L^2)/7L

                 = (7*30 + 10*15 - (15)^2)/7*15

                 = 1.285

Therefore, The  value of the marginal rate of technical substitution when K = 30 and L = 15 is 1.285

6 0
3 years ago
Eastern europe has become successful at manufacturing automobiles and ________ products.
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3 years ago
Using the aging method of accounts receivable method, $5,000 of the company's Accounts Receivable are estimated to be uncollecti
gogolik [260]

Answer:

The correct answer is $4,500.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Uncollectible Account receivable = $5,000

Account receivable balance = $100,000

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So, we can calculate the bad debt expense by using following formula:

Bad debt expense = Uncollectible Account receivable - Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

by putting the value, we get

Bad debt expense = $5,000 - $500

= $4,500.

6 0
3 years ago
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