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makkiz [27]
3 years ago
12

The board of directors of Nash's Trading Post, LLC declared a cash dividend of $1.00 per share on 30000 shares of common stock o

n July 15, 2020. The dividend is to be paid on August 15, 2020, to stockholders of record on July 31, 2020. The correct entry to be recorded on August 15, 2020, will include a debit to Cash Dividends. credit to Cash Dividends. credit to Dividends Payable. debit to Dividends Payable.
Business
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: debit to Dividends Payable.

Explanation:

When the dividend was declared in July 15, the dividend amount was debited to the Retained earnings to show that it was being taken from Retained earnings. It was then credited to Dividends payable to show that the company owed dividends to its shareholders.

On August 15, this liability will be paid off when the dividends are paid and so the Dividends Payable account will be debited to reflect this.

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What is time utility and possession utility?
Pie

Answer: The four types of economic utility are form, time, place and possession. "Utility" in this context refers to the value, or usefulness, that a purchaser receives in return for exchanging his money for a company's goods or services.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pakistan’s GDP in 2010, using the official exchange rate on 1/1/2010, is equal to $300 billion USD ($300,000,000,000). When 2010
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Undervalued

Explanation:

The PPP exchange rate is the implicit exchange rate, so that everywhere, one dollar has the same purchasing power. In general, this exchange rate is different from the exchange rate on the market.

Because the same nominal GDP translates to a higher real GDP by using the PPP exchange rate, one Pakistan Rupee must be valued more in terms of U.S. dollars than in contexts of the market exchange rate under the PPP exchange rate. The Pakistan Rupee is therefore worth less than its true value in the economy, i.e., undervalued.

5 0
3 years ago
g Novelli Corporation makes a product whose variable overhead standards are based on direct labor-hours. The quantity standard i
hram777 [196]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $110 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The quantity standard is 1.4 hours per unit.

The variable overhead rate standard is $11.00 per hour.

The company produced 1,450 units using 2,020 direct labor-hours.

To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

standard quantity= 1.4*1,450= 2,030

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (2,030 - 2,020)*11

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $110 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
The budget components for Park Company for the quarter ended June 30 appear below. Park sells trash cans for $12 each. Budgeted
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

$96,000

Explanation:

Production  26,000 units

<u>Materials Purchase Budget</u>

Production Materials Required  (5×26,000 units)     130,000

Add Budgeted Closing Materials (50,000×20%×5)   50,000

Total Materials                                                             180,000

Less Budgeted Opening Inventory (4,000×5)          (20,000)

Budgeted Materials                                                     160,000

Material Cost per pound                                                $0.60

Total Material Cost                                                      $96,000

Therefore, the materials purchases budget will be for the month ending April 30 will be  $96,000.

7 0
3 years ago
During the year, Bears Inc. recorded credit sales of $620,000. Before adjustments at year-end, Bears has accounts receivable of
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

Bad Debt Expense Dr. $28050        

Allowance for Uncollectible accounts Cr. $28050

Explanation:

given data

credit sales = $620,000

accounts receivable = $320,000

past due = $55,000

credit balance = $2,600

rate = 7 %

rate = 22 %

solution

so here Not yet past due is = $320,000 - $55,000 -

Not yet past due = $265,000

and

past due = $55,000

so  Required provision is

Required provision = $265,000 × 7 % + $55,000 × 22 %

Required provision = $30650

and

Opening balance is $2,600

so

Required expense for year = $30650 - $2,600

Required expense for year  = $28050

so here

correct entry is

Bad Debt Expense Dr. $28050        

Allowance for Uncollectible accounts Cr. $28050

8 0
3 years ago
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