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Zielflug [23.3K]
2 years ago
9

Help its pi, ill give brainiest to the first answer show work please :)

Mathematics
2 answers:
saw5 [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

16m

8m

50.24m

200.96m^2

Step-by-step explanation:

13. 8*2=16

14. 8m

15. 2pi r = 2* pi* 8= 50.24

16. pi r^2 = pi * 8^2= 200.96m^2

Setler79 [48]2 years ago
7 0
16 m
8 m
50.24 m
200.69 m ^2
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Binomial distribution can be used because the situation satisfies all the following conditions:1. Number of trials is known and remains constant (n)2. Each trial is Bernoulli (i.e. exactly two possible outcomes) (success/failure)3. Probability is known and remains constant throughout the trials (p)4. All trials are random and independent of the othersThe number of successes, x, is then given byP(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}whereC(n,x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}
Here we're given
p=0.10  [ success = defective ]
n=3

(a) x=0
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
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(b) x=2
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
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(c) x ≥ 2
P(x)=\sum_{x=2}^3C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
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=C(3,2)0.1^2(1-0.1)^{3-2}+C(3,3)0.1^3(1-0.1)^{3-3}
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=0.027+0.001
=0.028


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