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hram777 [196]
3 years ago
11

A manufacturer reports the following costs to produce 30,000 units in its first year of operations: Direct materials, $30 per un

it, Direct labor, $26 per unit, Variable overhead, $300,000, and Fixed overhead, $450,000. Of the 30,000 units produced, 29,200 were sold, and 800 remain in inventory at year-end. Under variable costing, the value of the inventory is:
Business
1 answer:
lubasha [3.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$53,019

Explanation:

Step 1  : Determine the unit product cost

Unit product cost under variable costing consist of only variable manufacturing costs.

Unit product cost = $30 + $26 + ($300,000 ÷ 29,200)

                               = $66.27

Step 2 : Calculate value of the inventory

Value of the inventory = Unit product cost x units in inventory

                                       = $66.27 x 800

                                       = $53,019

Under variable costing, the value of the inventory is $53,019.

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Oksanka [162]
The four major components that go into the calculation of the U.S. GDP, as used by the Bureau of Economic Analysis, U.S. Department of Commerce are:<span>Personal consumption expenditures.
Investment.
Net exports.
<span>Government expenditure.</span></span>
8 0
3 years ago
Peg and Al Fundy have a limited food budget, so Peg is trying to feed the family as cheaply as possible. However, she still want
Inga [223]

Answer:

A) we requiere to fulfill the Vitamint contrains or surpass them A => 12 C=>6

B) we request that instead of fullfilling the vitaming requirement to be 12/6 or more

to be exactly for this amount.

Explanation:

We set up the situation in excel Solver with the following constraing:

     1        2      3      4

A    3 3 1 7

B    3 1 1 1

C        12 6 24

C2 = A1*A2 + B1*B2

C3 = A1*A3 + B1*B3

C4 = A1*A4 + B1*B4

common constraing:

C4 min

A1 = integer

B1 = integer

A) constraing

C2 => 12

C3 =>6

B) contraing to achieve the exact value for each vitamin:

C2 = 12

C3 =  6

4 0
3 years ago
The following statements are true. Explain why. a. If a bond’s coupon rate is higher than its yield to maturity, then the bond w
krok68 [10]

Answer:

A Bond's current market value represented by B_{0} is the present value of a bond as on today. Present value of a bond is it's future cash flows in the form of coupon payments and principal repayment discounted at investor's expectation in the market also referred to as Yield to maturity(YTM).

Present value of a bond is given by the following equation,

B_{0} = \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{1} }  +\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{2} } \ +\ ......+\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} } \  +\ \frac{RV}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }

where C= Annual coupon payments

YTM = Yield to maturity/ cost of debt/ market rate of return on similarly priced bonds

RV = Redemption value of bond

n = number of years to maturity

<u>a. A bond's coupon rate is higher than it's yield to maturity, then the bond will sell for more than face value.</u>

Hence, if the company pays more interest than what is paid in the market on similarly priced bonds, such bonds shall sell at more than their face value.

<u>b. If a bond's coupon rate is lower than it's yield to maturity, then the bond's price will increase over it's remaining maturity.</u>

Similarly, if a bond pays lower rate of interest than the market rate of interest on similarly priced bonds, the bond shall sell at lower than it's face value and the price will increase over the remaining life of such bonds.

         

6 0
3 years ago
The fund has not borrowed any funds, but its accrued management fee with the portfolio manager currently totals $25,000. There a
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

$9.79

Explanation:

The computation of the  net asset value of the fund is shown below:

Net asset value of the fund = Equity ÷ Total outstanding shares

where,

Equity

= Total assets - total liabilities

where,

Total assets equal to

= 220,000 shares × $35 + 320,000 shares × $40 + 420,000 shares × $15 + 620,000 shares × $20

= $7,700,000 + $12,800,000 + $6,300,000 + $12,400,000

= $39,200,000

And, liabilities is $25,000

So, the net asset value of the fund equal to

= ($39,200,000 - $25,000) ÷ (4,000,000 shares)

= $9.79

7 0
3 years ago
A stock's price fluctuations are approximately normally distributed with a mean of $104.50 and a standard deviation of $23.62. Y
denpristay [2]

Answer:

$ 74.23

Explanation:

We are given the following:

mean, μ = $ 104.50

standard deviation, σ = $ 23.62

Using the z-score table, we have

P(Z < z) = 10%  (since we are evaluating lowest 10% of values)

hence P(Z < z) = 0.10

P(Z < -1.282 ) = 0.10

z = -1.282  (this evaluates to 0.1 on the z-score table)

Using z-score formula,

x = z *σ + μ

substituting the values,

x =- - 1.282 * 23.62 + 104.50

= 74.23

The most for the stock is $ 74.23

6 0
3 years ago
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